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	<description>Internal Medicine exam preparation and review course</description>
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		<title>The Common Cold</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/the-common-cold/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/the-common-cold/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Sun, 11 Jul 2010 15:47:45 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Allergy & Immunology]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Review Articles Main]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1495</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[The common cold is an acute respiratory tract infection characterized by mild coryzal symptoms, rhinorrhea, nasal obstruction, and sneezing. Although the incidence of the cold cannot be clearly defined because of seasonal and locational variability, it is estimated to vary from 3-6 cases per person per year. Children younger than 1 year have experienced an average [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The common cold is an acute respiratory tract infection characterized by mild coryzal symptoms, rhinorrhea, nasal obstruction, and sneezing. Although the incidence of the cold cannot be clearly defined because of seasonal and locational variability, it is estimated to vary from 3-6 cases <em>per person</em> per year. Children younger than 1 year have experienced an average of 6-8 episodes per year. This figure decreases to 3-4 episodes per year by adulthood. Although the list of agents that cause the common cold is large, 66-75% of cases are due to 200 antigenically distinct viruses from 8 different genera. The most common of these are the rhinoviruses (25-80% of cases), followed by coronaviruses (10-20%), influenza viruses (10-15%), and adenoviruses (5%).</p>
<p>Rhinoviral infections are chiefly limited to the upper respiratory tract but may cause otitis media and sinusitis. Rhinoviral infections may exacerbate asthma, cystic fibrosis, chronic bronchitis, and serious lower respiratory tract illness in infants, elderly persons, and immunocompromised persons. Although infections occur year-round, the greatest incidence occurs in the fall and spring. Of persons exposed to the virus, 70-80% have symptomatic disease.</p>
<p>Rhinoviruses are transmitted to susceptible individuals by direct contact or by aerosol particles infecting both ciliated areas of the nose and nonciliated areas of the nasopharynx. Few cells are actually infected by the virus, and the infection involves only a small portion of the epithelium. Symptoms develop 1-2 days after viral infection, peaking 2-4 days after inoculation, although reports have described symptoms as early as 2 hours after inoculation with primary symptoms 8-16 hours later.</p>
<p>The virus grows in a limited temperature range (33-35°C) and cannot tolerate an acidic environment. Thus, finding the virus outside of the nasopharynx is unlikely because of the acidic environment of the stomach and the increased temperature in both the lower respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.</p>
<p><a id="ClinicalHistory" name="ClinicalHistory"></a></p>
<p>Individual patients exhibit a wide variety of signs and symptoms:</p>
<ul>
<li>The incubation period is 12-72 hours, averaging 8-16 hours after viral inoculation of the nose. Symptomatic complaints 2 hours after viral inoculation have been described.</li>
<li>Illness initially begins with a sore throat, which is frequently the most bothersome of the early symptoms. This is followed by nasal discharge, nasal congestion, and sneezing, which intensify over the next 2-3 days.</li>
<li>Other associated complaints include headache, facial and ear pressure, and loss of smell and taste.</li>
<li>Thirty percent of infected individuals develop a cough, and 20% develop hoarseness, both of which may persist up to a week, although they seldom become bothersome until nasal symptoms improve.</li>
<li>Systemic signs and symptoms, such as fever and malaise, are unusual. If they are present, consider an alternative diagnosis.</li>
<li>Symptoms generally last 7-11 days, although they persist up to 2 weeks in a quarter of patients. Rarely, patients complain of lingering symptoms that last more than 30 days.</li>
<li>Infants and toddlers may display only nasal discharge. However, Calvo et al recently reported that, among infants younger than 2 years with viral respiratory tract infection requiring hospitalization in Spain, rhinoviral infections are second only to respiratory syncytial virus infections in terms of frequency.<sup> </sup> </li>
<li>School-aged children usually complain of nasal congestion, cough, and runny nose. These symptoms persist for an average of at least 10 days.<sup> </sup></li>
<li>Most patients have obstruction and mucosal abnormalities of sinuses, eustachian tubes, and middle ear, which causes a predisposition to secondary bacterial infection in up to 2% of patients.</li>
<li>Infection may exacerbate underlying asthma and chronic pulmonary disease.</li>
<li>People who smoke do not appear to have more frequent rhinoviral infections; however, their infections are more severe and their symptoms of longer duration.</li>
</ul>
<p>The physical examination findings are typically less severe than those reported by the patient.</p>
<ul>
<li>Red nose with dripping nasal discharge may be present.</li>
<li>Nasal mucous membranes have a glistening glassy appearance without obvious erythema or edema. Yellow or green nasal discharge does not indicate bacterial infection because a large number of white blood cells migrate to the site of viral infection.</li>
<li>If marked erythema, edema, exudates, or small vesicles are observed in the oropharynx or if conjunctivitis or polyps in the nasal mucosa occur, consider other etiologies, including infection with adenovirus, herpes simplex virus, mononucleosis, diphtheria, coxsackievirus A, or group A streptococci.</li>
<li>Auscultation of the chest may reveal rhonchi, but the chest is usually clear.</li>
</ul>
<h3>Transmission</h3>
<p><a id="ClinicalCauses" name="ClinicalCauses"></a></p>
<ul>
<li>Rhinoviral transmission occurs with close exposure to infected respiratory secretions, including hand-to-hand, self-inoculation of eyes or nose, and, possibly, large- and small-particle aerosolization. The virus has been cultured from the skin after up to 2 hours and after up to 4 days on inanimate objects in ideal conditions. Donors are typically symptomatic with a cold at the time of transmission, and virus is detected on their hands and nasal mucosa.</li>
<li>One recent study assessed the transfer of virus to surfaces in 15 adults with rhinoviral infection. Each stayed overnight in a hotel room. Afterward, 10 commonly-touched sites in each room were tested for viral contaminants. They found that virus could be recovered from 35% of these sites. Furthermore, they found that virus could be transferred back from inanimate objects to fingertips in many cases. </li>
<li>Higher rates occur in humid, crowded conditions, as found in nurseries, daycare centers, and schools, especially during cooler months in temperate regions and the rainy season in tropical regions.</li>
<li>The likelihood of transmission does not appear to be related to exposure to cold temperatures, fatigue, or sleep deprivation.</li>
</ul>
<h3>Treatment</h3>
<p><a id="TreatmentMedicalCare" name="TreatmentMedicalCare"></a></p>
<p>Rhinoviral infections are predominately mild and self-limited; thus, treatment is generally focused on symptomatic relief and prevention of person-to-person spread and complications. The mainstays of therapy include rest, hydration, antihistamines, and nasal decongestants.</p>
<p>Antibacterial agents are not effective unless bacterial superinfection occurs. Development of effective antiviral medications has been hampered by the short course of these infections. Because peak symptom severity occurs at 24-36 hours after inoculation, antivirals have only a narrow window to positively affect a rhinoviral infection. In addition, the cause of the common cold is not always rhinoviral infection. Therefore, rapid and accurate diagnostic tests would be needed if a specific antiviral therapy were developed.</p>
<ul>
<li>Because of the large number of rhinovirus immunotypes and the inaccessibility of the conserved region of the viral capsid (the most likely effective site for targeting a vaccine), no rhinovirus vaccine is on the horizon.</li>
<li>Because infection is spread by hand-to-hand contact, autoinoculation, and, possibly, aerosol particles, emphasize appropriate hand washing, avoidance of finger-to-eyes or finger-to-nose contact, and use of nasal tissue.</li>
<li>Heated humidified air has been used for decades for the alleviation of symptoms due to rhinoviral infections but has never been shown to improve objective outcome measures.</li>
</ul>
<p>Dietary supplements have been touted as possible therapeutic or preventive measures.</p>
<ul>
<li>Although large doses of vitamin C have been used for prevention and treatment of colds, controlled trials reveal minimal therapeutic benefit and no preventive qualities.</li>
<li>Zinc has been found to inhibit rhinovirus replication in vitro, but no proven benefit has been shown in vivo on virus activity or immune modulation.</li>
</ul>
<p>Drugs used in the symptomatic treatment include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), antihistamines, and anticholinergic nasal solutions. These agents have no preventive activity and appear to have no impact on complications. The combined effect of NSAIDs and antihistamines often relieves nasal obstruction; therefore, decongestion therapy is rarely needed. Oral (pseudoephedrine) and topical (oxymetazoline and phenylephrine) decongestants are commonly used for symptomatic relief.</p>
<p>First-generation antihistamines reduce rhinorrhea by 25-35%, as do topical anticholinergics and ipratropium bromide. Second-generation or nonsedating antihistamines appear to have no effect on common cold symptoms. Corticosteroids may actually increase viral replication and have no impact on cold symptoms.</p>
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		<title>Molluscum Contagiosum</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/molluscum-contagiosum/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/molluscum-contagiosum/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Thu, 08 Jul 2010 02:31:59 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Dermatology]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Infectious Diseases]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1480</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Transmission of molluscum contagiosum has been reported by direct skin contact and has occurred in wrestlers, patients of a surgeon with a hand lesion, and children sharing baths, towels, gymnasium equipment, and benches. Autoinoculation also occurs as evidenced by linear arrays of lesions on infected individuals. Molluscum contagiosum can likely be vertically transmitted, similarly to other [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/MolluscumContag.jpg"><img class="alignright size-medium wp-image-1481" title="MolluscumContag" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/MolluscumContag-300x221.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="221" /></a>Transmission of molluscum contagiosum has been reported by direct skin contact and has occurred in wrestlers, patients of a surgeon with a hand lesion, and children sharing baths, towels, gymnasium equipment, and benches. Autoinoculation also occurs as evidenced by linear arrays of lesions on infected individuals. Molluscum contagiosum can likely be vertically transmitted, similarly to other viruses such as condyloma acuminatum and human papillomavirus (HPV).</p>
<p>Skin &#8211; Primary lesion of molluscum contagiosum</p>
<ul type="circle">
<li>Firm, smooth, umbilicated papules, usually 2-6 mm in diameter (range 1-15 mm), may be present in groups or may be widely disseminated on the skin and mucosal surfaces.</li>
<li>The lesions can be flesh-colored, white, translucent, or even yellow in color.</li>
<li>The number of lesions varies from 1-20 up to hundreds in some reports.</li>
<li>Some lesions become confluent to form a plaque.</li>
<li>Lesions generally are self-limited but can persist for several years.</li>
</ul>
<p>The common goal of the different treatment methods is the destruction of the lesions. Once the lesion is gone, the infection is gone.  In immunocompetent people, no therapy is indicted with resolution in 6 to 12 months.  In the immunocompromised, aggressive therapy is needed to contain the disease with chemical, cryo, laser, or curettage.  <a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/molluscum.jpg"><img class="size-medium wp-image-1482 alignleft" title="molluscum" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/molluscum-300x165.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="165" /></a></p>
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		<title>Hepatocellular Carcinoma</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/hepatocellular-carcinoma/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/hepatocellular-carcinoma/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 06 Jul 2010 02:41:43 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Gastroenterology]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Oncology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1463</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a primary malignancy of the liver. Hepatocellular carcinoma is now the third leading cause of cancer deaths worldwide, with over 500,000 people affected.  The incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma is highest in Asia and Africa, where the endemic high prevalence of hepatitis B and hepatitis C strongly predisposes to the development of [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<div id="attachment_1464" class="wp-caption alignleft" style="width: 310px"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/HepatocellularCA.jpg"><img class="size-medium wp-image-1464" title="HepatocellularCA" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/HepatocellularCA-300x295.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="295" /></a><p class="wp-caption-text">See the lesion at the arrow.</p></div>
<p>Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a primary malignancy of the liver. Hepatocellular carcinoma is now the third leading cause of cancer deaths worldwide, with over 500,000 people affected.  The incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma is highest in Asia and Africa, where the endemic <strong><em><span style="color: #ff0000;">high prevalence of hepatitis B and hepatitis C strongly predisposes to the development of chronic liver disease and subsequent development of hepatocellular carcinoma</span></em></strong>.</p>
<p>Hepatocellular carcinoma is a primary cancer of the liver and occurs predominantly in patients with underlying chronic liver disease and cirrhosis.</p>
<p>The cell of origin is believed to be the hepatic stem cells. <sup> </sup></p>
<p>Tumors progress with local expansion, intrahepatic spread, and distant metastases.</p>
<p>In general, the tumors are discovered either during routine screening or when symptomatic because of their size or location. Tumors may present as a single mass lesion or as diffuse growth, which can be difficult to differentiate from the surrounding cirrhotic liver tissue and the regenerating liver nodules on imaging studies.</p>
<p>The presentation may be caused in part by mass effect that can lead to obstruction of the biliary system or anywhere affecting the liver vasculature.</p>
<p>Without aggressive surgical resection, ablative therapy, or liver transplantation, hepatocellular carcinoma results in liver failure and death.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/HepatocellularCAgross.jpg"><img class="alignright size-medium wp-image-1465" title="HepatocellularCAgross" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/HepatocellularCAgross-300x225.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="225" /></a>In the United States, the risk factors have historically included <strong><em>alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatitis B (HBV) infection, hemochromatosis, and now hepatitis C (HCV) infection</em></strong>.<sup> </sup>However, the <strong>obesity epidemic</strong> has resulted in a growing population of patients with <span style="color: #000000;">nonalcoholic fatty liver disease</span>, also referred to as nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. Patients with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease can progress to fibrosis, cirrhosis, <em>and now hepatocellular carcinoma.</em></p>
<p><strong>Among patients <em>with cirrhosis</em>, current recommendations include cross-sectional imaging studies every 6-12 months and serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) measurements.</strong></p>
<p><strong>Liver transplant is still the best treatment!!</strong></p>
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		<item>
		<title>Calcified/Porcelain Gallbladder</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/calcifiedporcelain-gallbladder/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/calcifiedporcelain-gallbladder/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 06 Jul 2010 01:52:10 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Gastroenterology]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Oncology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1457</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Patients with porcelain gallbladder are usually asymptomatic, and the condition is usually found incidentally on plain abdominal radiographs, sonograms, or computed tomography (CT) images.
Surgical treatment of porcelain gallbladder is based on results from studies performed in 1931 and 1962, which revealed an association between porcelain gallbladder and gallbladder carcinoma.
Porcelain gallbladder is an uncommon condition; recognizing [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Calcified-GB.jpg"><img class="alignright size-medium wp-image-1458" title="Calcified GB" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Calcified-GB-213x300.jpg" alt="" width="213" height="300" /></a>Patients with porcelain gallbladder are usually asymptomatic, and the condition is usually found incidentally on plain abdominal radiographs, sonograms, or computed tomography (CT) images.</p>
<p>Surgical treatment of porcelain gallbladder is based on results from studies performed in 1931 and 1962, which revealed an association between <strong><em>porcelain gallbladder and gallbladder carcinoma</em></strong>.</p>
<p>Porcelain gallbladder is an uncommon condition; recognizing the clinical and imaging characteristics of the disease is important because of the high frequency (22%) of adenocarcinoma in porcelain gallbladder.<sup> </sup> </p>
<p>Surgery should not be delayed even if the patient is asymptomatic, because the occurrence of carcinoma in porcelain gallbladder is remarkably high.</p>
<p><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>Remember. . . a calcified gallbladder on routine x-ray in an asymptomatic patient NEEDS SURGERY!!<sup> </sup></strong></span></p>
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		<title>Recurrent Miscarriages/Abortions</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/recurrent-miscarriagesabortions/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/recurrent-miscarriagesabortions/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 06 Jul 2010 01:31:32 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ambulatory Medicine]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Rheumatology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1452</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Most studies demonstrate a spontaneous miscarriage rate of 10-15%. However, the true rate of early pregnancy loss is close to 50% because of the high number of chemical pregnancies that are not recognized in the 2-4 weeks after conception. Most of these pregnancy failures are due to gamete failure (eg, sperm or oocyte dysfunction).
In internal [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/unborn-baby.jpg"><img class="alignright size-medium wp-image-1453" title="unborn-baby" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/unborn-baby-300x256.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="256" /></a>Most studies demonstrate a spontaneous miscarriage rate of 10-15%. However, the true rate of early pregnancy loss is close to 50% because of the high number of chemical pregnancies that are not recognized in the 2-4 weeks after conception. Most of these pregnancy failures are due to gamete failure (eg, sperm or oocyte dysfunction).</p>
<p>In internal medicine, the main causes <em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">for exam purposes</span></em> are:</p>
<ol>
<li>Anticardiolipin Syndrome</li>
<li>Lupus Anticoagulant (Anti-phospholipid)</li>
<li>Fibrinogen Disorders</li>
<li>Factor 13 deficiency</li>
</ol>
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		<title>Retinal Detachment</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/retinal-detachment/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/retinal-detachment/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 06 Jul 2010 01:11:53 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ambulatory Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1448</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Retinal detachment occurs when subretinal fluid accumulates in the potential space between the neurosensory retina and the underlying retinal pigment epithelium.
Symptoms 

Photopsias refer to the perception of flashing lights by the patient. It probably arises from the mechanical stimulation of vitreoretinal traction on the retina. It may be induced by eye movements and appears to [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Retinal-Detachment.jpg"><img class="alignright size-medium wp-image-1449" title="Retinal Detachment" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Retinal-Detachment-300x225.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="225" /></a>Retinal detachment occurs when subretinal fluid accumulates in the potential space between the neurosensory retina and the underlying retinal pigment epithelium.</p>
<p><strong>Symptoms </strong></p>
<ul>
<li>Photopsias refer to the perception of flashing lights by the patient. It probably arises from the mechanical stimulation of vitreoretinal traction on the retina. It may be induced by eye movements and appears to be more noticeable in dim illumination.</li>
<li>Visual field defect: Patients often describe a black curtain (visual field defect).</li>
<li>Floaters
<ul>
<li>Floaters are opacities in the vitreous that cast a dark shadow according to their form and shape in the patient&#8217;s visual field as they float in the vitreous cavity.</li>
<li>A ring-shaped floater is the Weiss ring or the remnant of the hyaloid that was attached to the edges of the optic disc.</li>
<li>Cobwebs are caused by condensation of the collagen fibers.</li>
<li>Small spots usually indicate fresh blood due to the rupture of a retinal vessel during an acute PVD.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Loss of central vision
<ul>
<li>When the macula becomes detached (ie, extension of subretinal fluid into the macula), the patient experiences a drop in visual acuity.</li>
<li>In other cases, a large bullous detachment may obstruct the macula, causing decreased visual acuity despite the fact that the macula is not detached.</li>
</ul>
</li>
</ul>
<h3>The following are risk factors: </h3>
<ul>
<li>Abnormal vitreoretinal adhesions</li>
<li>Prior intraocular surgery, especially cataract extraction</li>
<li>Certain familial conditions, such as Stickler syndrome, Marfan syndrome, homocystinuria, and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome</li>
<li>Inflammatory or infectious conditions, such as acute retinal necrosis syndrome, CMV retinitis in AIDS patients, ocular toxoplasmosis, and pars planitis</li>
</ul>
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		<title>Sudden Vision Loss</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/sudden-vision-loss/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/sudden-vision-loss/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 06 Jul 2010 00:33:48 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ambulatory Medicine]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Internal Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1438</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Sudden visual loss is a common complaint among patients of different ages with variable presentations. Some patients describe it as a gray-black curtain that gradually descends or as blurring, fogging, or dimming of vision. It usually lasts a few minutes but can persist for hours. The frequency varies from a single episode to many episodes [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/vision.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1439" title="vision" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/vision.jpg" alt="" width="291" height="291" /></a>Sudden visual loss is a common complaint among patients of different ages with variable presentations. Some patients describe it as a gray-black curtain that gradually descends or as blurring, fogging, or dimming of vision. It usually lasts a few minutes but can persist for hours. The frequency varies from a single episode to many episodes during a day; it may continue for years but more often lasts from seconds to hours. Ischemia is the most common mechanism of acute visual dysfunction, and it can affect any aspect of the visual system.</p>
<p>Eye ischemia is claasified as the following:</p>
<ul>
<li>Transient visual obscuration (TVO) &#8211; Episodes lasting seconds that are associated with papilledema and increased intracranial pressure</li>
<li>Amaurosis fugax &#8211; Brief, fleeting attack of monocular partial or total blindness that lasts seconds to minutes</li>
<li>Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) or transient monocular blindness (TMB) &#8211; A more persistent vision loss that lasts minutes or longer</li>
<li>Transient bilateral visual loss (TBVL) &#8211; Episodes affecting one or both eyes or both cerebral hemispheres and causing visual loss</li>
<li>Ocular infarction &#8211; Persistent ischemic damage to the eye, resulting in permanent vision loss</li>
</ul>
<p>_______________________________________________________________________________</p>
<li>Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) in a person younger than 45 years may be benign; many attacks are probably vasospastic or due to migraine.</li>
<li>Transient bilateral visual loss (TBVL) is almost always associated with severe occlusive disease of the internal carotid artery (ICA), aortic arch, or bilateral occipital lobe ischemia.</li>
<li>Patients with ICA disease often have other systemic evidence of atherosclerosis, such as coronary and peripheral vascular disease. Smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension are also risk factors.</li>
<p><strong>Transient Bilateral Vision Loss</strong></p>
<p>Wray has classified TMVL into 3 different groups based mostly on pathogenesis; they include the following:<sup> </sup></p>
<ul>
<li><strong>Type 1</strong> is characterized by loss of all or a portion of vision in one eye, lasting seconds to minutes, with full recovery. It is usually secondary to an embolic phenomenon. The attacks have been related to an ICA origin associated with ulceration but not critical narrowing.</li>
<li><strong>Type 2</strong> includes visual loss due to hemodynamically significant, occlusive, low-flow lesions in the ICAs or ophthalmic arteries. Symptoms are more frequent, less rapid in onset, and longer in duration than type 1 attacks, with gradual vision recovery.</li>
<li><strong>Type 3</strong> is thought to be due to vasoconstriction or vasospasm.</li>
</ul>
<p><strong><span style="color: #000000;">Angle Closure Glaucoma</span></strong></p>
<p>The diagnosis is not difficult when the presentation is typical—<strong><span style="color: #0000ff;">a painful, red eye with increased intraocular pressure that is accompanied by diaphoresis, nausea, and vomiting</span></strong>. Atypical presentations include chronic angle closure or an acute closure without pain. The presence of a midposition, fixed pupil in an eye with reduced vision can suggest unrecognized angle-closure glaucoma.  Treatment consists of topical miotics and beta-blockers, systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, hyperosmotic agents, and perhaps analgesics and antiemetics. Ophthalmologic consult is warranted.</p>
<p>______________________________________________________________________________________</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/aspirin.jpg"><span style="color: #000000;"><img class="alignright size-medium wp-image-1440" title="aspirin" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/aspirin-300x250.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="250" /></span></a><strong><span style="color: #000000;">Medical care for patients with sudden visual loss includes the following:</span></strong></p>
<ul type="disc">
<li><strong>Aspirin</strong> is believed to be beneficial in patients with no hemodynamically significant disease of the carotid artery (ie, greater than 1 mm residual lumen) or those who are poor surgical candidates.
<ul type="circle">
<li>In general, aspirin together with modification of risk factors (eg, decreasing serum cholesterol level, controlling systemic hypertension) reduces the likelihood of myocardial infarction. It is also very effective in reducing the risk of stroke.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Advise patients with frequent or severe headaches to stop smoking.</li>
<li>Inferior retinal detachment is treated with the patient sitting up. Superior detachment is treated with the patient lying prone.</li>
</ul>
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		<title>Pharygitis. . . Treat or Not???</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/pharygitis-treat-or-not/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/pharygitis-treat-or-not/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 05 Jul 2010 23:56:49 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ambulatory Medicine]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Infectious Diseases]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1434</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Pharyngitis is defined as an infection or irritation of the pharynx and/or tonsils. The etiology is usually infectious, with most cases being of viral origin. These cases are benign and self-limiting for the most part. Bacterial causes of pharyngitis are also self-limiting, but are concerning because of suppurative and nonsuppurative complications. Other causes include allergy, trauma, [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Pharyngitis is defined as an infection or irritation of the pharynx and/or tonsils. The etiology is usually infectious, with most cases being of viral origin. These cases are benign and self-limiting for the most part. Bacterial causes of pharyngitis are also self-limiting, but are concerning because of suppurative and nonsuppurative complications. Other causes include allergy, trauma, toxins, and neoplasia.<br />
<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Strep-Pharygitis.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-medium wp-image-1435" title="Strep Pharygitis" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Strep-Pharygitis-300x240.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="240" /></a></p>
<p>In the end, the decision to treat or not treat pharygitis rests with the probability of having a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, specifically.  Most other causes are self-limiting, and more importantly, do not require antibiotic therapy.  </p>
<p><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>The Centor criteria</strong> </span>have been used in the past as a way to diagnose and treat GAS pharyngitis. <sup> </sup><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">These include the following:<br />
</span></strong></p>
<ol>
<li><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">Fever</span></strong></li>
<li><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy</span></strong></li>
<li><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">Tonsillar exudate</span></strong></li>
<li><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">Absence of cough</span></strong></li>
</ol>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Assess for </span><strong><span style="color: #000000;">group A beta-hemolytic</span> streptococcal</strong> (GAS) infection if clinically suspected. A suggested algorithm as is follows.</p>
<ul>
<li>In general, patients should not be treated without a positive culture or positive rapid antigen detection test result because of increasing antibiotic resistance. Guidelines from the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) and American Heart Association state that microbiologic confirmation (via a rapid antigen test or culture) is required for the diagnosis of GAS. <sup> </sup></li>
<li>Perform rapid antigen detection test if GAS is clinically suspected based on history and physical examination. If positive, begin antibiotic therapy. Testing does not usually need to be performed on patients with acute pharyngitis whose clinical and epidemiologic features do not suggest GAS as the etiology (Centor score 0-1).<sup> </sup></li>
<li>Patients who are positive for all 4 Centor criteria can often be treated with antibiotics without antigen testing or cultures.</li>
<li>Household contacts of patients with GAS infection or scarlet fever should be treated for a full 10 days without testing only if they have symptoms consistent with GAS.<sup> </sup></li>
<li>If clinically doubtful or the above criteria are not met, it is best to await rapid antigen or culture results to initiate antibiotic therapy.</li>
</ul>
<div id="attachment_1436" class="wp-caption aligncenter" style="width: 310px"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Strep.jpg"><img class="size-medium wp-image-1436" title="Strep" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/Strep-300x225.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="225" /></a><p class="wp-caption-text">You should recognize Strep pyogenes.</p></div>
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		<title>Conjunctivitis</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/conjunctivitis/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/conjunctivitis/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 05 Jul 2010 21:46:33 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Infectious Diseases]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1429</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Conjunctivitis is one of the most common nontraumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to the office. The term describes any inflammatory process that involves the conjunctiva.

In classic presentations, patients complain of eyelids sticking together on waking.
They may describe itching and burning or a gritty foreign-body sensation.
Pus sliding across the eye may distort vision, though visual [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/conjunctivitis-viral.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1430" title="conjunctivitis-viral" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/conjunctivitis-viral-300x200.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="200" /></a>Conjunctivitis is one of the most common nontraumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to the office. The term describes any inflammatory process that involves the conjunctiva.</p>
<ul>
<li>In classic presentations, patients complain of <strong>eyelids sticking together on waking</strong>.</li>
<li>They may describe itching and burning or a gritty foreign-body sensation.</li>
<li>Pus sliding across the eye may distort vision, though visual acuity is normal.</li>
<li>Photophobia is minimal.</li>
<li>Family members with similar complaints typically present with conjunctivitis from an infectious cause.</li>
<li>A history of a recent upper respiratory infection (URI) typically is associated with a viral cause.</li>
</ul>
<p>Specific helpful clues in differentiating the causes of conjunctivitis are listed below.</p>
<ul>
<li>Bacterial conjunctivitis
<ul>
<li>Preauricular adenopathy sometimes occurs; chemosis (thickened, boggy conjunctiva) is common.</li>
<li>Discharge is copious; discharge quality is thick and purulent. Conjunctival injection is moderate or marked.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Viral conjunctivitis
<ul>
<li>Preauricular adenopathy is common in herpes.</li>
<li>Discharge amount is moderate, stringy, or sparse; discharge quality is thin and seropurulent. Conjunctival injection is moderate or marked.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Chlamydial conjunctivitis tends to be chronic with exacerbation and remission.
<ul>
<li>Preauricular adenopathy is occasional; chemosis is rare.</li>
<li>Discharge amount is minimal; discharge quality is seropurulent. Conjunctival injection is moderate.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Allergic conjunctivitis occurs with pruritus as the hallmark symptom.
<ul>
<li>Preauricular adenopathy is absent; chemosis is common.</li>
<li>Discharge amount is moderate, stringy, or sparse; discharge quality is clear. Conjunctival injection is moderate.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Marginal ulcers (small white ulcers that appear on the cornea at the limbus) may indicate an allergic reaction to staphylococcal antigen.
<ul>
<li>This is a toxin-related complication of staphylococcal species that frequently cause blepharitis.</li>
<li>Pain, photophobia, and a foreign-body sensation are common. The ulcers are sterile and respond to topical steroids.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Bilateral disease typically is infectious or allergic.</li>
<li>Unilateral disease suggests toxic, chemical, mechanical, or lacrimal origin.</li>
</ul>
<p>Acute conjunctivitis occurs with almost equal frequency between bacterial and viral causes. Some have noted that viral conjunctivitis occurs more frequently in the summer, and bacterial conjunctivitis occurs more often in the winter and spring.</p>
<p><strong>Treatment with antimicrobials and symptomatic therapy is recommended for all patients initially presenting to the office with simple conjunctivitis</strong>.</p>
<p>Numerous topical antimicrobial agents may be used, including topical sulfacetamide, erythromycin, gentamicin, ciprofloxacin, or ofloxacin.</p>
<p>Instill drops every 2 hours. An ointment can be used at night or every 4-6 hours throughout the day.</p>
<p>If a question on the therapy for classic conjunctivitis offers options of:</p>
<ol>
<li>Saline</li>
<li>Good hand washing</li>
<li>Steroid opthalmologic drops</li>
<li><strong>Gentamycin drops</strong></li>
</ol>
<p><strong>Choose antibiotic therapy (#4) Remember the BEST answer is wanted.</strong></p>
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		<title>Colon Cancer Pharmacological Therapy</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/colon-cancer-pharmacological-therapy/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/colon-cancer-pharmacological-therapy/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 05 Jul 2010 21:12:16 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Oncology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1422</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[5-Fluorouracil remains the backbone of chemotherapy regimens for colon cancer, both in the adjuvant and metastatic setting. In the past 10 years, it was established that combination regimens provide improved efficacy and prolonged progression-free survival in patients with metastatic colon cancer.
In addition to 5-fluorouracil, oral fluoropyrimidines such as capecitabine (Xeloda) and tegafur are increasingly used [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<div id="attachment_1423" class="wp-caption alignleft" style="width: 234px"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/5FU.jpg"><img class="size-medium wp-image-1423" title="5FU" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/5FU-224x300.jpg" alt="" width="224" height="300" /></a><p class="wp-caption-text">Store this image in your brain.</p></div>
<p>5-Fluorouracil remains the backbone of chemotherapy regimens for colon cancer, both in the adjuvant and metastatic setting. In the past 10 years, it was established that combination regimens provide improved efficacy and prolonged progression-free survival in patients with metastatic colon cancer.</p>
<p>In addition to 5-fluorouracil, oral fluoropyrimidines such as capecitabine (Xeloda) and tegafur are increasingly used as monotherapy or in combination with oxaliplatin (Eloxatin) and irinotecan (Camptosar).</p>
<p><strong>Adjuvant (postoperative) chemotherapy</strong></p>
<p>The standard therapy for patients with stage III and some patients with stage II colon cancer for the last 2 decades consisted of fluorouracil in combination with adjuncts such as levamisole and leucovorin. <sup> </sup>This approach has been tested in several large randomized trials and has been shown to reduce individual 5-year risk of cancer recurrence and death by about 30%.</p>
<p>The role of adjuvant chemotherapy for stage II colon cancer is controversial. A large European trial (QUASAR) demonstrated small but significant benefit (3.6%) in terms of absolute 5-year survival rate for those patients who received 5-fluorouracil/leucovorin versus those in the control group.</p>
<p><strong>Radiation therapy</strong></p>
<p>While radiation therapy remains a standard modality for patients with rectal cancer, the role of radiation therapy is limited in colon cancer. It does not have a role in the adjuvant setting, and in metastatic settings, it is limited to palliative therapy for selected metastatic sites such as bone or brain metastases.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/colon-cancer-staging.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-1425" title="colon-cancer staging" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/colon-cancer-staging.jpg" alt="" width="400" height="320" /></a></p>
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		<title>Breast Cancer Pharmacological Therapy</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/breast-cancer-pharmacological-therapy/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/breast-cancer-pharmacological-therapy/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 05 Jul 2010 20:53:34 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Oncology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1415</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[The American Society of Clinical Oncology (ACOG) has updated their practice guidelines regarding pharmacologic intervention for breast cancer risk reduction. Some of the highlights are are listed below:

Tamoxifen use for 5 years reduces risk for at least 10 years in premenopausal women, particularly estrogen receptor (ER) – positive invasive tumors.

Women 50 years or younger have [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p style="text-align: center;"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/tamoxifen.jpg"><img class="size-full wp-image-1416 aligncenter" title="tamoxifen" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/tamoxifen.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="180" /></a>The American Society of Clinical Oncology (ACOG) has updated their practice guidelines regarding pharmacologic intervention for breast cancer risk reduction.<sup> </sup>Some of the highlights are are listed below:</p>
<ul>
<li>Tamoxifen use for 5 years reduces risk for at least 10 years in premenopausal women, particularly estrogen receptor (ER) – positive invasive tumors.
<ul>
<li>Women 50 years or younger have few adverse effects with tamoxifen.</li>
<li>Vascular/vasomotor adverse effects do not persist post treatment.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Tamoxifen and raloxifene are equally effective in reducing risk of ER-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women.
<ul>
<li>Raloxifene is associated with lower rates of thromboembolic disease, benign uterine conditions, and cataracts than tamoxifen.</li>
<li>Evidence does not exist regarding whether either agent decreases mortality from breast cancer.</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>Recommendations
<ul>
<li>For women with increased risk for breast cancer, offer tamoxifen (20 mg/d for 5 y) to reduce risk of invasive ER-positive breast cancer.</li>
<li>In postmenopausal women, raloxifene (60 mg/d for 5 y) may also be considered.</li>
<li>Aromatase inhibitors (eg, anastrozole, exemestane, letrozole), fenretinide, or other SERMs are not recommended outside of a clinical trial.</li>
</ul>
</li>
</ul>
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		<title>BRCA1 &amp; 2 (Breast Cancer)</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/brca1-2-breast-cancer/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/brca1-2-breast-cancer/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 05 Jul 2010 18:16:58 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Oncology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1412</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[The BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene mutations, on chromosome 17 and 13, respectively, account for the majority of autosomal dominant inherited breast cancers.
Both genes are believed to be tumor suppressor genes whose products are involved with maintaining DNA integrity and transcriptional regulation.
Mutation rates may vary by ethnic and racial groups.

For BRCA1 mutations, the highest rates occur [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The <em>BRCA1</em> and <em>BRCA2</em> gene mutations, on chromosome 17 and 13, respectively, account for the majority of autosomal dominant inherited breast cancers.</p>
<p>Both genes are believed to be tumor suppressor genes whose products are involved with maintaining DNA integrity and transcriptional regulation.</p>
<p>Mutation rates may vary by ethnic and racial groups.</p>
<ul>
<li>For <em>BRCA1</em> mutations, the highest rates occur among Ashkenazi Jewish women (8.3%)</li>
<li>followed by Hispanic women (3.5%),</li>
<li>non-Hispanic white women (2.2%),</li>
<li>African American women (1.3%), and</li>
<li>Asian American women (0.5%).</li>
</ul>
<p><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">Women who inherit a mutation in the <em>BRCA1</em> or <em>BRCA2</em> gene have an estimated 50-80% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer.</span></strong></p>
<p>Specifically, <em>BRCA1</em> mutations are seen in 7% of families with multiple breast cancers and 40% of families with breast and ovarian cancer.</p>
<p><em>BRCA1</em> mutation carries a lifetime risk of 40% for developing ovarian cancer and are also at a higher risk of colon cancer and prostate cancer.</p>
<p>Breast cancer that develops in <em>BRCA1</em> mutation carriers are more likely to be high-grade, and ER, PR, and HER-2/neu negative (triple negative) or basal-like subtype.</p>
<p><em><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/breastcancer.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1419" title="breastcancer" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/breastcancer-300x279.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="279" /></a> </em></p>
<p><em>BRCA2</em> mutations are identified in 10-20% of families at high risk for breast and ovarian cancers and in only 2.7% of women with early-onset breast cancer.</p>
<p>Women with a <em>BRCA2</em> mutation have approximately 10% lifetime risk of ovarian cancer.</p>
<p><em>BRCA2</em> mutation carriers who develop breast cancer are more likely to have a high grade, ER+/PR+, and HER-2/neu negative cancer (luminal type).</p>
<p><strong><span style="color: #ff0000;"><em>BRCA2</em> is also a risk factor for male breast cancer.</span></strong></p>
<p>Other cancers associated with <em>BRCA2</em> mutations include prostate, pancreatic, fallopian tube, bladder, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and basal cell carcinoma.</p>
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		<title>ITP vs TTP vs DIC</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/itp-vs-ttp-vs-dic/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/itp-vs-ttp-vs-dic/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Fri, 02 Jul 2010 15:57:59 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Allergy & Immunology]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Hematology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1382</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/ITPTTPDIC.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-1383" title="ITPTTPDIC" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/ITPTTPDIC.jpg" alt="" width="432" height="329" /></a></p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 7 Pharmacological Treatment</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/abc/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/abc/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Thu, 01 Jul 2010 01:08:30 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Review Articles Main]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/abc/</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[A large number of drugs are currently available for reducing BP. Greater than 2/3 of all patients treated for hypertension will need more than one agent.  For example, in ALLHAT, 60 percent of those whose BP was controlled to &#60;140/90 mmHg received two or more agents, and only 30 percent overall were controlled on one [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>A large number of drugs are currently available for reducing BP. Greater than 2/3 of all patients treated for hypertension will need more than one agent.  For example, in ALLHAT, 60 percent of those whose BP was controlled to &lt;140/90 mmHg received two or more agents, and only 30 percent overall were controlled on one drug. In hypertensive patients with lower BP goals or with substantially elevated BP, three or more antihypertensive drugs may be required. Since the first VA Cooperative Trial, published in 1967, thiazide-type diuretics have been the basis of antihypertensive therapy in the majority of placebo-controlled outcome trials, in which CVD events, including strokes, CHD, and HF have been reduced by BP lowering. However, there are also excellent clinical trial data proving that lowering BP with other classes of drugs, including ACEIs, ARBs, beta blockers (BBs), and calcium channel blockers (CCBs) also reduces the complications of hypertension. Several randomized controlled trials have demonstrated reductions in CVD with BBs, but the benefits are less consistent than with diuretics. The European Trial on Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly (Syst-EUR) showed significant reductions in stroke and all CVD with the dihydropyridine CCB, nitrendipine, as compared with placebo. The Heart Outcomes Prevention Evaluation (HOPE) Study, which was not restricted to hypertensive individuals but which included a sizable hypertensive subgroup, showed reductions in a variety of CVD events with the ACEI, ramipril, compared with placebo in individuals with prior CVD or diabetes mellitus combined with other risk factor(s). The European Trial on Reduction of Cardiac Events with Perindopril in Stable Coronary Artery Disease (EUROPA) study in which the ACEI, perindopril, was added to existent therapy in patients with stable coronary disease and without HF also demonstrated reduction in CVD events with ACEIs.</p>
<p>Since 1998, several large trials comparing “newer” classes of agents, including CCBs, ACEIs, an alpha-1 receptor blocker, and an ARB, with the “older” diuretics and/or BBs have been completed. Most of these studies showed the newer classes were neither superior nor inferior to the older ones. One exception was the Losartan Intervention for Endpoint Reduction in Hypertension (LIFE) Study, in which CVD events were 13 percent lower (because of differences in stroke but not CHD rates) with the ARB, losartan, than with the BB, atenolol.</p>
<p>There has not been a large outcome trial completed yet comparing an ARB with a diuretic. All of these trials together suggest broadly similar cardiovascular protection from BP-lowering with ACEIs, CCBs, and ARBs, as with thiazide-type diuretics and BBs, although some specific outcomes may differ between the classes. There do not appear to be systematic outcome differences between dihydropyridine and nondihydropyridine CCBs in hypertension morbidity trials. On the basis of other data, short-acting CCBs are not recommended in the management of hypertension.</p>
<p><strong>Rationale for Recommendation of Thiazide-Type Diuretics as Preferred Initial Agent</strong></p>
<p>In trials comparing diuretics with other classes of antihypertensive agents, diuretics have been virtually unsurpassed in preventing the cardiovascular complications of hypertension. In the ALLHAT study, which involved more than 40,000 hypertensive individuals, there were no differences in the primary CHD outcome or mortality between the thiazide-type diuretic, chlorthalidone; the ACEI, lisinopril; or the CCB, amlodipine. Stroke incidence was greater with lisinopril than chlorthalidone therapy, but these differences were present primarily in African Americans who also had less BP lowering with lisinopril than diuretics. The incidence of HF was greater in CCB-treated and ACEI-treated individuals as compared with those receiving the diuretic in both African Americans and Whites. In the Second Australian National Blood Pressure (ANBP2) Study, which compared the effects of an ACEI-based regimen against diuretics-based therapy in 6,000 White hypertensive individuals, cardiovascular outcomes were less in the ACEI group, with the favorable effect apparent only in men.  CVD outcome data comparing ARB  with other agents are limited.</p>
<p>Clinical trial data indicate that diuretics are generally well tolerated. The doses of thiazide-type diuretics used in successful morbidity trials of “low-dose” diuretics were generally the equivalent of 25–50 mg of hydrochlorothiazide or 12.5–25mg of chlorthalidone, although therapy may be initiated at lower doses and titrated to these doses if tolerated. Higher doses have been shown to add little additional antihypertensive efficacy, and are associated with more hypokalemia and other adverse effects.</p>
<p>Uric acid will increase in many patients receiving a diuretic, but the occurrence of gout is uncommon with dosages of 50 mg/day of hydrochlorothiazide or of  25 mg of chlorthalidone. Some reports have described an increased degree of sexual dysfunction when thiazide diuretics (particularly at high doses) are used. In the Treatment of Mild Hypertension Study (TOMHS), participants randomized to chlorthalidone reported a significantly higher incidence of erection problems through 24 months of the study; however, the incidence rate at 48 months was similar to placebo. The VA Cooperative study did not document a significant difference in the occurrence of sexual dysfunction using diuretics when compared with other antihypertensive medications (see section on erectile dysfunction). Adverse metabolic effects may occur with diuretics. In ALLHAT, diabetes incidence after 4 years of therapy was 11.8 percent with chlorthalidone therapy, 9.6 percent with amlodipine, and 8.1 percent with lisinopril. However, those differences did not translate to fewer cardiovascular events for the ACEI or CCB groups.</p>
<p>Those who were already diabetic had fewer cardiovascular events in the diuretic group than with ACEI treatment. Trials of longer than 1 year’s duration using modest doses of diuretics generally have not shown an increase in serum cholesterol in diuretic-treated patients. In ALLHAT, serum cholesterol did not increase from baseline in any group, but it was 1.6 mg/dL lower in the CCB group and 2.2 mg/dL lower in the ACEI group than in diuretic-treated patients. Thiazideinduced hypokalemia could contribute to increased ventricular ectopy and possible sudden death, particularly with high doses of thiazides in the absence of a potassium-sparing agent. In the Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly Program (SHEP) Trial, the positive benefits of diuretic therapy were not apparent when serum potassium levels were below 3.5mmol/L. However, other studies have not demonstrated increased ventricular ectopy as a result of diuretic therapy. Despite potential adverse metabolic effects of diuretics, with laboratory monitoring, thiazide-type diuretics are effective and relatively safe for the management of hypertension.</p>
<p>Thiazide diuretics are less expensive than other antihypertensive drugs, although as members of other classes of drugs have become available in generic form, their cost has been reduced. Despite the various benefits of diuretics, they remain underutilized.</p>
<p><strong><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/HTN-Treat.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1349" title="HTN Treat" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/07/HTN-Treat.jpg" alt="" width="715" height="758" /></a>Achieving Blood Pressure Control in Individual Patients</strong></p>
<p>Therapy begins with lifestyle modification, and if BP goal is not achieved, thiazide-type diuretics should be used as initial therapy for most patients, either alone or in combination with one of the other classes (ACEIs, ARBs, BBs, CCBs) that have also been shown to reduce one or more hypertensive complications in randomized controlled outcome trials.</p>
<p>Since most hypertensive patients will require two or more antihypertensive medications to achieve their BP goals, addition of a second drug from a different class should be initiated when use of a single agent in adequate doses fails to achieve the goal. When BP is &gt;20 mmHg above systolic goal or 10 mmHg above diastolic goal, consideration should be given to initiate therapy with two drugs, either as separate prescriptions or in fixed-dose combinations. The initiation of therapy with more than one drug increases the likelihood of achieving BP goal in a more timely fashion. The use of multidrug combinations often produce greater BP reduction at lower doses of the component agents, resulting in fewer side effects.</p>
<p>The use of fixed-dose combinations may be more convenient and simplify the treatment regimen, and may cost less than the individual components prescribed separately. Use of generic drugs should be considered to reduce prescription costs, and the cost of separate prescription of multiple drugs available generically may be less than nongeneric, fixed-dose combinations. The starting dose of most fixed-dose combinations is usually below the doses used in clinical outcome trials, and the doses of these agents should be titrated upward to achieve the BP goal before adding other drugs. However, caution is advised in initiating therapy with multiple agents, particularly in some older persons and in those at risk for orthostatic hypotension, such as diabetics with autonomic dysfunction.</p>
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		<title>CSF Analysis</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/csf-analysis/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/csf-analysis/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 03:05:12 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Infectious Diseases]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Neurology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1323</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Here are the normal parameters :
Pressure          = 50-180 mmH2O
Color                = clear
RBC count       = 0-4 x 10^6/L
WBC count      = 0-4 x 10^6/L
Glucose            = &#62;60% of the serum level
Protein             = &#60; 0.45 g/L
Microbiology   = sterile//no growth
Subarachnoid haemorrhage :
Pressure increased, bloody, RBC count increased, WBC = normal/increased, glucose = normal, protein = increased, sterile
 
Acute bacterial meningitis :
Pressure normal/increased, cloudy/turbid, RBC count = [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong><em>Here are the normal parameters :</em></strong></p>
<p>Pressure          = 50-180 mmH2O<br />
Color                = clear<br />
RBC count       = 0-4 x 10^6/L<br />
WBC count      = 0-4 x 10^6/L<br />
Glucose            = &gt;60% of the serum level<br />
Protein             = &lt; 0.45 g/L<br />
Microbiology   = sterile//no growth</p>
<p><strong>Subarachnoid haemorrhage :</strong></p>
<p>Pressure increased, bloody, RBC count increased, WBC = normal/increased, glucose = normal, protein = increased, sterile<br />
<strong> </strong><br />
<strong>Acute bacterial meningitis :</strong></p>
<p>Pressure normal/increased, cloudy/turbid, RBC count = normal, WBC = 1000-5000 polymorphs, glucose = decreased, protein = increased, organism present on gram stain/culture</p>
<p><strong>Viral meningitis</strong></p>
<p>Pressure normal, clear, RBC count = normal, WBC = 10-2000 lymphocytes, glucose = normal, protein = normal/increased, sterile/viral DNA or RNA present<br />
<strong></strong><br />
<strong>Tuberculous meningitis</strong></p>
<p>Pressure normal/increased, clear/cloudy, RBC count = normal, WBC = 50-5000 lymphocytes, glucose = decreased, protein = increased, ZN stain/Auramine stain</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/lumbar-puncture.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-1324" title="lumbar-puncture" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/lumbar-puncture.jpg" alt="" width="638" height="608" /></a></p>
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		<title>Third Degree AV Block</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/third-degree-av-block/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/third-degree-av-block/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 02:50:45 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1317</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Complete heart block, also referred to as third-degree heart block, or third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, is a disorder of the cardiac conduction system where there is no conduction through the AV node as shown below:
 



 When you see this, emergently place temporay pacing in a hospital setting where plans for permanent pacer and cardiovascular consult can [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Complete heart block, also referred to as third-degree heart block, or third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, is a disorder of the cardiac conduction system where there is <span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>no conduction through the AV node</strong> <span style="color: #000000;">as shown below:</span></span></p>
<div><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong><span style="color: #000000;"> </span></strong></span></div>
<div><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong><span style="color: #000000;"></span></strong></span></div>
<p><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong><span style="color: #000000;"></p>
<div id="attachment_1318" class="wp-caption aligncenter" style="width: 927px"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/3rd-degree-AV-block.jpg"><img class="size-full wp-image-1318" title="3rd degree AV block" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/3rd-degree-AV-block.jpg" alt="" width="917" height="110" /></a><p class="wp-caption-text">Atria &amp; ventricle completely ignoring each other. . .</p></div>
<p></span></strong></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #ff0000;"> <span style="color: #000000;">When you see this, emergently place temporay pacing in a hospital setting where plans for permanent pacer and cardiovascular consult can be obtained.  </span></span></p>
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		<title>Second Degree AV Block</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/second-degree-av-block/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 02:42:33 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1313</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Second-degree heart block, or second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, refers to a disorder of the cardiac conduction system in which some atrial impulses are not properly conducted to the ventricles.
Some P waves are not followed by a QRS.
Second-degree AV block is composed of 2 types: Mobitz I or Wenckebach block, and Mobitz II.
The Mobitz I second-degree [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Second-degree heart block, or second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, refers to a disorder of the cardiac conduction system in which some atrial impulses are not properly conducted to the ventricles.</p>
<p>Some P waves are not followed by a QRS.</p>
<p>Second-degree AV block is composed of 2 types: Mobitz I or Wenckebach block, and Mobitz II.</p>
<p>The Mobitz I second-degree AV block is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval, which results in a progressive shortening of the R-R interval, as shown in the image below.</p>
<div id="attachment_1314" class="wp-caption aligncenter" style="width: 451px"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Mobitz1_1.gif"><img class="size-full wp-image-1314" title="Mobitz1_1" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Mobitz1_1.gif" alt="" width="441" height="162" /></a><p class="wp-caption-text">2nd Degree Mobitz Type 1 </p></div>
<p>Ultimately, the atrial impulse fails to conduct, a QRS complex is not generated, and there is no ventricular contraction.</p>
<p>The Mobitz II 2nd degree AV block is characterized by an unexpected nonconducted atrial impulse, as shown in the image below. Thus, the PR and R-R intervals between conducted beats are constant.</p>
<p><sup><a href="javascript:showcontent('active','references');"></a></sup></p>
<div id="attachment_1315" class="wp-caption aligncenter" style="width: 964px"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Mobitz-2a.jpg"><img class="size-full wp-image-1315" title="Mobitz 2a" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Mobitz-2a.jpg" alt="" width="954" height="112" /></a><p class="wp-caption-text">Notice preserved R - R interval</p></div>
<p><strong>Mobitz I (Wenckebach) block</strong></p>
<ul>
<li>No specific therapy is required, unless the patient is symptomatic.</li>
<li>Patients with suspected myocardial ischemia should be treated with an appropriate anti-ischemic regimen.</li>
<li>AV nodal blocking agents (including beta-blockade) should be avoided.</li>
<li>Symptomatic patients should be treated with atropine and transcutaneous pacing. However, atropine should be administered with caution in patients with suspected myocardial ischemia, as ventricular dysrhythmias can occur in this situation.</li>
</ul>
<p><strong>Mobitz II block</strong></p>
<ul>
<li>As with type I block, AV nodal agents should be avoided, and an anti-ischemic regimen should be instituted if ischemia is suspected.</li>
<li>Transcutaneous pacing pads should be applied to all patients, including asymptomatic patients, as patients with Mobitz II second-degree AV block have a propensity to progress to complete heart block. The transcutaneous pacemaker should be tested to ensure capture. If capture is not able to be achieved, then insertion of a transvenous pacemaker is indicated, even in asymptomatic patients.</li>
<li>Urgent cardiology consult is indicated for patients who have symptomatic type II block and for those asymptomatic patients who are unable to achieve capture with transcutaneous pacing.</li>
</ul>
<p><a href="javascript:showcontent('active','references');"></a></p>
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		<title>First degree AV block</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/first-degree-av-block/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 02:18:44 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1310</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[First-degree heart block, or first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, is defined as prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG to more than 200 msec.  
While the conduction is slowed, there are no missed beats. ECG of a patient with first-degree heart block is shown below.

First-degree AV block is more common among African Americans compared with white populations.
The [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>First-degree heart block, or first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, is defined as prolongation of the PR interval on the ECG to more than 200 msec. <sup> </sup></p>
<p>While the conduction is slowed, there are no missed beats. ECG of a patient with first-degree heart block is shown below.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/first-degree_block.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-1311" title="first-degree_block" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/first-degree_block.jpg" alt="" width="400" height="146" /></a></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">First-degree AV block is more common among African Americans compared with white populations.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">The prevalence of first-degree AV block increases with advancing age.</span></p>
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		<title>Left Bundle Branch Block</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/left-bundle-branch-block/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/left-bundle-branch-block/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 02:10:49 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1304</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Left bundle branch block (LBBB) occurs when transmission of the cardiac electrical impulse is delayed or fails to be conducted along the rapidly conducting fibers of the main left bundle branch or in both left anterior and posterior fascicles.  Thus, the left ventricle slowly depolarizes by means of cell-to-cell conduction that spreads from the right [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Left bundle branch block (LBBB) occurs when transmission of the cardiac electrical impulse is delayed or fails to be conducted along the rapidly conducting fibers of the main left bundle branch or in both left anterior and posterior fascicles. <sup> </sup>Thus, the left ventricle slowly depolarizes by means of cell-to-cell conduction that spreads from the right ventricle to the left ventricle. This results in the characteristic ECG pattern shown in the image below.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/LBBB.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-1305" title="LBBB" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/LBBB.jpg" alt="" width="720" height="334" /></a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/LBBBECGexplained.jpg"><img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-1308" title="LBBBECGexplained" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/LBBBECGexplained.jpg" alt="" width="705" height="441" /></a></p>
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		<title>S4</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/s4/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 01:29:01 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1296</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Ventricular filling during atrial contraction
Due to decreased ventricular compliance  (CAD, AS, MR, HCM, Diabetic Cardiomyopathy)
****No S4 during Atrial Fibrillation
The S4 heart sound is associated with any process that increases the stiffness of the ventricle including: 
–&#62;hypertrophy of the ventricle 
–&#62;long-standing hypertension (causes ventricular hypertrophy) 
–&#62;aortic stenosis (causes ventricular hypertrophy) 
–&#62;overloading of the ventricle (causes ventricular [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1287" title="Heart Diagram" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png" alt="" width="435" height="435" /></a><strong><em>Ventricular filling during atrial contraction</em></strong></p>
<p>Due to <strong>decreased ventricular compliance</strong>  (CAD, AS, MR, HCM, Diabetic Cardiomyopathy)</p>
<p><strong><em>****No S4 during Atrial Fibrillation</em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>The S4 heart sound is associated with any process that increases the stiffness of the ventricle including: </em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>–&gt;hypertrophy of the ventricle </em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>–&gt;long-standing hypertension (causes ventricular hypertrophy) </em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>–&gt;aortic stenosis (causes ventricular hypertrophy) </em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>–&gt;overloading of the ventricle (causes ventricular hypertrophy) </em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>–&gt;fibrosis of the ventricle (eg. post-MI) </em></strong></p>
<p><strong><em>–&gt;Congestive Heart Failure</em></strong></p>
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		<title>S3</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/s3/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 01:26:33 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Internal Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1294</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[
May be normal in people under 40 years of age and some trained athletes but should disappear before middle age.

 

Caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by in-rushing blood from the atria.

Due to:
1.Rapid ventricular filling

  Ventricular decompensation (acutely)
  Ventricular Septal Defect

2.Severe aortic or mitral regurgitation
3.Poor Left [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1287" title="Heart Diagram" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png" alt="" width="435" height="435" /></a></p>
<ul>
<li>May be normal in people under 40 years of age and some trained athletes but should disappear before middle age.</li>
</ul>
<p> </p>
<ul>
<li>Caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by in-rushing blood from the atria.</li>
</ul>
<p>Due to:</p>
<p>1.Rapid ventricular filling</p>
<ul>
<li>  Ventricular decompensation (acutely)</li>
<li>  Ventricular Septal Defect</li>
</ul>
<p>2.Severe aortic or mitral regurgitation</p>
<p>3.Poor Left Ventricular Function –Post MI –Dilated Cardiomyopathy<span id="_marker"> </span> <span style="font-family: Tahoma; color: white; font-size: 28pt; text-shadow: auto; mso-ascii-font-family: Tahoma; language: en-US; mso-color-index: 1;">(acutely)</span></p>
<p style="text-align: left; margin-top: 6.72pt; text-indent: -0.56in; unicode-bidi: embed; direction: ltr; margin-bottom: 0pt; margin-left: 1.06in; vertical-align: baseline; language: en-US; mso-line-break-override: none; punctuation-wrap: hanging;"><span style="font-family: Tahoma; color: white; font-size: 28pt; text-shadow: auto; mso-ascii-font-family: Tahoma; language: en-US; mso-color-index: 1;"><span style="mso-tab-count: 1;">  </span>Ventricular Septal Defect</span></p>
<div style="text-align: left; margin-top: 7.68pt; text-indent: -0.56in; unicode-bidi: embed; direction: ltr; margin-bottom: 0pt; margin-left: 0.56in; vertical-align: baseline; language: en-US; mso-line-break-override: none; punctuation-wrap: hanging;"><span style="font-size: 32pt;"><span style="font-family: +mj-lt; color: #ffffcc; font-size: 70%; mso-special-format: 'numbullet3,1'; mso-color-index: 10;">2.</span></span><span style="font-family: Tahoma; color: white; font-size: 32pt; text-shadow: auto; mso-bidi-font-family: +mn-cs; mso-ascii-font-family: Tahoma; mso-fareast-font-family: +mn-ea; language: en-US; mso-color-index: 1;">Sev</span></div>
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		<title>S2</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/s2/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 00:59:53 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Internal Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1290</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Closure of aortic and pulmonic valves just after systole.
Persistently split S2 (widened S2) is due to pulmonic stenosis, PE, or RBBB (all cause delayed function of right ventricle.)
A young girl with a split S2 and with RBBB on ECG is Pulmonic Stenosis. Not ASD or VSD.
Normally heard as split during inspiration. The split disappears on expiration.
]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1287" title="Heart Diagram" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png" alt="" width="435" height="435" /></a>Closure of aortic and pulmonic valves just after systole.</p>
<p>Persistently split S2 (widened S2) is due to pulmonic stenosis, PE, or RBBB (all cause delayed function of right ventricle.)</p>
<p>A young girl with a split S2 and with RBBB on ECG is Pulmonic Stenosis. Not ASD or VSD.</p>
<p>Normally heard as split during inspiration. The split disappears on expiration.</p>
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		<title>S1</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/s1/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Jun 2010 00:44:19 +0000</pubDate>
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				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Internal Medicine]]></category>

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		<description><![CDATA[Normally heard as a single sound, occasionally a narrow split
Heard during the onset of systole
Due to closure of the mitral and tricuspid valve
Loud S1 : pregnancy, anemia, anxiety, thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis
Soft S1 : heart failure, mitral regurgitation
]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1287" title="Heart Diagram" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Heart-Diagram.png" alt="" width="435" height="435" /></a>Normally heard as a single sound, occasionally a narrow split</p>
<p>Heard during the onset of systole</p>
<p>Due to closure of the mitral and tricuspid valve</p>
<p><strong>Loud S1</strong> : pregnancy, anemia, anxiety, thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis</p>
<p><strong>Soft S1</strong> : heart failure, mitral regurgitation</p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 6 Treatment</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/jnc-7-part-6-treatment/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 22 Jun 2010 02:36:55 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Internal Medicine]]></category>
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		<description><![CDATA[Blood Pressure Control Rates
 Hypertension is the most common primary diagnosis in America (35 million office visits as the primary diagnosis).5 Current control rates (SBP &#60;140 mmHg and DBP &#60;90 mmHg), though improved, are still far below the Healthy People goal of 50 percent, which was originally set as the year 2000 goal and has since [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Blood Pressure Control Rates</strong></p>
<p> Hypertension is the most common primary diagnosis in America (35 million office visits as the primary diagnosis).5 Current control rates (SBP &lt;140 mmHg and DBP &lt;90 mmHg), though improved, are still far below the Healthy People goal of 50 percent, which was originally set as the year 2000 goal and has since been extended to 2010. In the majority of patients, reducing SBP has been considerably more difficult than lowering DBP. Although effective BP control can be achieved in most patients who are hypertensive, the majority will require two or more antihypertensive drugs. Failure to prescribe lifestyle modifications, adequate antihypertensive drug doses, or appropriate drug combinations may result in inadequate BP control.</p>
<p><strong> </strong><strong>Goals of Therapy</strong></p>
<p>The ultimate public health goal of antihypertensive therapy is to reduce cardiovascular and renal morbidity and mortality. Since most persons with hypertension, especially those &gt;50 years of age, will reach the DBP goal once the SBP goal is achieved, the primary focus should be on attaining the SBP goal.</p>
<p> Treating SBP and DBP to targets that are &lt;140/90 mmHg is associated with a decrease in CVD complications. In patients with hypertension and diabetes or renal disease, the BP goal is &lt;130/80 mmHg.</p>
<p><strong>Benefits of Lowering Blood Pressure</strong></p>
<p>In clinical trials, antihypertensive therapy has been associated with reductions in (1) stroke incidence, averaging 35–40 percent; (2) myocardial infarction (MI), averaging 20–25 percent; and (3) HF, averaging &gt;50 percent. It is estimated that in patients with stage 1 hypertension (SBP 140–159 mmHg and/or DBP 90–99 mmHg) and additional cardiovascular risk factors, achieving a sustained 12 mmHg reduction in SBP over 10 years will prevent 1 death for every 11 patients treated.</p>
<p> In the added presence of CVD or target organ damage, only nine patients would require such BP reduction to prevent one death.</p>
<p><strong> </strong><strong>Lifestyle Modifications</strong></p>
<p>Adoption of healthy lifestyles by all persons is critical for the prevention of high BP and is an indispensable part of the management of those with hypertension. Weight loss of as little as 10 lbs (4.5 kg) reduces BP and/or prevents hypertension in a large proportion of overweight persons, although the ideal is to maintain normal body weight. BP is also benefited by adoption of the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) eating plan which is a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and lowfat dairy products with a reduced content of dietary cholesterol as well as saturated and total fat (modification of whole diet). It is rich in potassium and calcium content. Dietary sodium should be reduced to no more than 100 mmol per day (2.4 g of sodium). Everyone who is able should engage in regular aerobic physical activity such as brisk walking at least 30 minutes per day most days of the week. Alcohol intake should be limited to no more than 1 oz (30 mL) of ethanol, the equivalent of two drinks per day in most men and no more than 0.5 oz of ethanol (one drink) per day in women and lighter weight persons. A drink is 12 oz of beer, 5 oz of wine, and 1.5 oz of 80- proof liquor (see table 9). Lifestyle modifications reduce BP, prevent or delay the incidence of hypertension, enhance antihypertensive drug efficacy, and decrease cardiovascular risk. For example, in some individuals, a 1,600 mg sodium DASH eating plan has BP effects similar to single drug therapy. Combinations of two (or more) lifestyle modifications can achieve even better results. For overall cardiovascular risk reduction, patients should be strongly counseled to quit smoking.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-9.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-large wp-image-1086" title="Table 9" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-9-1024x821.jpg" alt="" width="717" height="575" /></a></p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 5 Patient Evaluation &amp; Differential</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/jnc-7-part-5-patient-evaluation/</link>
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		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Jun 2010 23:32:40 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>
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		<description><![CDATA[Evaluation of hypertensive patients has three objectives: (1) to assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant disorders that may affect prognosis and guide treatment (table 6); (2) to reveal identifiable causes of high BP (table 7); and (3) to assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and CVD.
 Patient evaluation is [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Evaluation of hypertensive patients has three objectives: (1) to assess lifestyle and identify other cardiovascular risk factors or concomitant disorders that may affect prognosis and guide treatment (table 6); (2) to reveal identifiable causes of high BP (table 7); and (3) to assess the presence or absence of target organ damage and CVD.</p>
<p> Patient evaluation is made through medical history, physical examination, routine laboratory tests, and other diagnostic procedures. The physical examination should include: an appropriate measurement of BP, with verification in the contralateral arm; an examination of the optic fundi; a calculation of body mass index (BMI) (measurement of waist circumference is also very useful); an auscultation for carotid, abdominal, and femoral bruits; a palpation of the thyroid gland; a thorough examination of the heart and lungs; an examination of the abdomen for enlarged kidneys, masses, distended urinary bladder, and abnormal aortic pulsation; a palpation of the lower extremities for edema and pulses; and neurological assessment.</p>
<p> Data from epidemiological studies and clinical trials have demonstrated that elevations in resting heart rate and reduced heart-rate variability are associated with higher cardiovascular risk. In the Framingham Heart Study, an average resting heart rate of 83 beats per minute was associated with a substantially higher risk of death from a cardiovascular event than the risk associated with lower heart rate levels. Moreover, reduced heart-rate variability was also associated with an increase in cardiovascular mortality.</p>
<p>No clinical trials have prospectively evaluated the impact of reduced heart rate on cardiovascular outcomes.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/CAD-Risk-Factors.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1077" title="CAD Risk Factors" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/CAD-Risk-Factors.jpg" alt="" width="355" height="617" /></a></p>
<p> <a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/HTN-Causes11.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1079" title="HTN Causes1" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/HTN-Causes11.jpg" alt="" width="597" height="382" /></a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/HTN-Causes1.jpg"></a> </p>
<p><strong>Laboratory Tests and Other Diagnostic Procedures</strong></p>
<p>Routine laboratory tests recommended before initiating therapy include a 12-lead electrocardiogram; urinalysis; blood glucose and hematocrit; serum potassium, creatinine (or the corresponding estimated glomerular filtration rate [eGFR]), and calcium; and a lipoprotein profile (after a 9- to 12-hour fast) that includes high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), and triglycerides. Optional tests include measurement of urinary albumin excretion or albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) except for those with diabetes or kidney disease where annual measurements should be made. More extensive testing for identifiable causes is not generally indicated unless BP control is not achieved or the clinical and routine laboratory evaluation strongly suggests an identifiable secondary cause (i.e., vascular bruits, symptoms of catecholamine excess, or unprovoked hypokalemia). (See Identifiable Causes of Hypertension for a more thorough discussion.) The presence of decreased GFR or albuminuria has prognostic implications as well. Studies reveal a strong relationship between decreases in GFR and increases in cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Even small decreases in GFR increase cardiovascular risk.67 Serum creatinine may overestimate glomerular filtration. The optimal tests to determine GFR are debated, but calculating GFR from the recent modifications of the Cockcroft and Gault equations is useful.</p>
<p>The presence of albuminuria, including microalbuminuria, even in the setting of normal GFR, is also associated with an increase in cardiovascular risk.  Urinary albumin excretion should be quantitated and monitored on an annual basis in</p>
<p>high-risk groups, such as those with diabetes or renal disease.</p>
<p>Additionally, three emerging risk factors (1) high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (HS-CRP); a marker of inflammation; (2) homocysteine; and (3) elevated heart rate may be considered in some individuals, particularly those with CVD but without other risk-factor abnormalities. Results of an analysis of the Framingham Heart Study cohort demonstrated that those with a LDL value within the range associated with low cardiovascular risk, who also had an elevated HS-CRP value, had a higher cardiovascular event rate as compared to those with low CRP and high LDL cholesterol. Other studies also have shown that elevated CRP is associated with a higher cardiovascular event rate, especially in women. Elevations in homocysteine have also been linked to higher cardiovascular risk; however, the results with this marker are not as robust as those with high HS-CRP.</p>
<p><strong>Identifiable Causes of Hypertension</strong></p>
<p>Additional diagnostic procedures may be indicated to identify causes of hypertension, particularly in patients whose (1) age, history, physical examination, severity of hypertension, or initial laboratory findings suggest such causes; (2) BP responds poorly to drug therapy; (3) BP begins to increase for uncertain reason after being well controlled; and (4) onset of hypertension is sudden. Screening tests for particular forms of identifiable hypertension are shown in table 8.</p>
<p>Pheochromocytoma should be suspected in patients with labile hypertension or with paroxysms of hypertension accompanied by headache, palpitations, pallor, and perspiration. Decreased pressure in the lower extremities or delayed or absent femoral arterial pulses may indicate aortic coarctation; and truncal obesity, glucose intolerance, and purple striae suggest Cushing’s syndrome. Examples of clues from the laboratory tests include unprovoked hypokalemia (primary aldosteronism), hypercalcemia (hyperparathyroidism), and elevated creatinine or abnormal urinalysis (renal parenchymal disease). Appropriate investigations should be conducted when there is a high index of suspicion of an identifiable cause.</p>
<p>The most common parenchymal kidney diseases associated with hypertension are chronic glomerulonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, and hypertensive nephrosclerosis. These can generally be distinguished by the clinical setting and additional testing. For example, a renal ultrasound is useful in diagnosing polycystic kidney disease. Renal artery stenosis and subsequent renovascular hypertension should be suspected in a number of circumstances including: (1) onset of hypertension before age 30, especially in the absence of family history, or onset of significant hypertension after age 55; (2) an abdominal bruit especially if a diastolic component is present; (3) accelerated hypertension; (4) hypertension that had been easy to control but is now resistant; (5) recurrent flash pulmonary edema; (6) renal failure of uncertain etiology especially in the absence of proteinuria or an abnormal urine sediment; and (7) acute renal failure precipitated by therapy with an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI)</p>
<p>or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) under conditions of occult bilateral renal artery stenosis or moderate to severe volume depletion.</p>
<p>In patients with suspected renovascular hypertension, noninvasive screening tests include the ACEI-enhanced renal scan, duplex Doppler flow studies, and magnetic resonance angiography. While renal artery angiography remains the gold standard for identifying the anatomy of the renal artery, it is not recommend for diagnosis alone because of the risk associated with the procedure. At the time of intervention, an arteriogram will be performed using limited contrast to confirm the stenosis and identify the anatomy of the renal artery.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-8.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-full wp-image-1082" title="Table 8" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-8.jpg" alt="" width="562" height="370" /></a></p>
<p><strong>Genetics of Hypertension</strong></p>
<p>The investigation of rare genetic disorders affecting BP has led to the identification of genetic abnormalities associated with several rare forms</p>
<p>of hypertension, including mineralocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism, 11beta-hydroxylase and 17alpha-hydroxylase deficiencies, Liddle’s syndrome, the syndrome of apparent mineralocorticoid excess, and pseudohypoaldosteronism type II. The individual and joint contributions of these genetic mutations to BP levels in the general population, however, are very small. Genetic association studies have identified polymorphisms in several candidate genes (e.g., angiotensinogen, alpha-adducin, beta- and DA-adrenergic receptors, and beta-3 subunit of G proteins), and genetic linkage studies have focused attention on several genomic sites that may harbor other genes contributing to primary hypertension.</p>
<p>However, none of these various genetic abnormalities has been shown, either alone or in joint combination, to be responsible for any applicable portion of hypertension in the general population.</p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 4 Accurate Blood Pressure Measurement</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/jnc-7-part-4-accurate-blood-pressure-measurement/</link>
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		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Jun 2010 23:20:31 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>
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		<description><![CDATA[The accurate measurement of BP is the sine qua non for successful management. The equipment—whether aneroid, mercury, or electronic—should be regularly inspected and validated. The operator should be trained and regularly retrained in the standardized technique, and the patient must be properly prepared and positioned. The auscultatory method of BP measurement should
be used.58 Persons should [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The accurate measurement of BP is the sine qua non for successful management. The equipment—whether aneroid, mercury, or electronic—should be regularly inspected and validated. The operator should be trained and regularly retrained in the standardized technique, and the patient must be properly prepared and positioned. The auscultatory method of BP measurement should</p>
<p>be used.58 Persons should be seated quietly for at least 5 minutes in a chair (rather than on an exam table), with feet on the floor, and arm supported at heart level. Caffeine, exercise, and smoking should be avoided for at least 30 minutes prior to measurement. Measurement of BP in the standing position is indicated periodically, especially in those at risk for postural hypotension, prior to necessary drug dose or adding a drug, and in those who report symptoms consistent with reduced BP upon standing. An appropriately sized cuff (cuff bladder encircling at least 80 percent of the arm) should be used to ensure accuracy. At least two measurements should be made and the average recorded. For manual determinations, palpated radial pulse obliteration pressure should be used to estimate SBP—the cuff should then be inflated 20–30 mmHg above this level for the auscultatory determinations; the cuff deflation rate for auscultatory readings should be 2 mmHg per second. SBP is the point at which the first of two or more Korotkoff sounds is heard (onset of phase 1), and the disappearance of Korotkoff sound (onset of phase 5) is used to define DBP. Clinicians should provide to patients, verbally and in writing, their specific BP numbers and the BP goal of their treatment.</p>
<p>Followup of patients with various stages of hypertension is recommended.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-4.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1071" title="Table 4" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-4-300x170.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="170" /></a></p>
<p><strong>Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring</strong></p>
<p>Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) provides information about BP during daily activities and sleep. BP has a reproducible “circadian” profile, with higher values while awake and mentally and physically active, much lower values during rest and sleep, and early morning increases for 3 or more hours during the transition of sleep to wakefulness. These devices use either a microphone to measure Korotkoff sounds or a cuff that senses arterial waves using oscillometric techniques. Twenty-four hour BP monitoring provides multiple readings during all of a patient’s activities. While office BP values have been used in the numerous studies that have established the risks associated with an elevated BP and the benefits of lowering BP, office measurements have some shortcomings. For example, a white-coat effect (increase in BP primarily in the medical care environment) is noted in as many as 20–35 percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension. Ambulatory BP values are usually lower than clinic readings. Awake hypertensive individuals have an average BP of &gt;135/85 mmHg, and during sleep, &gt;120/75 mmHg. The level of BP measurement using ABPM correlates better than office measurements with target organ injury. ABPM also provides a measure of the percentage of BP readings that are elevated, the overall BP load, and the extent of BP fall during sleep. In most people, BP drops by 10–20 percent during the night; those in whom such reductions are not present appear to be at increased risk for cardiovascular events. In addition, it was reported recently that ABPM patients whose 24-hour BP exceeded 135/85 mmHg were nearly twice as likely to have a cardiovascular event as those with 24-hour mean BPs &lt;135/85 mmHg, irrespective of the level of the office BP.  </p>
<p> Indications for the use of ABPM are listed in table 5. Medicare reimbursement for ABPM is now provided to assess patients with suspected white-coat hypertension.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-5.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1072" title="Table 5" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Table-5-300x147.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="147" /></a></p>
<p><strong>Self-Measurement</strong></p>
<p>Self-monitoring of BP at home and work is a practical approach to assess differences between office and out-of-office BP prior to consideration of ABPM. For those whose out-of-office BPs are consistently &lt;130/80 mmHg despite an elevated office BP, and who lack evidence of target organ disease, 24-hour monitoring or drug therapy can be avoided. Self-measurement or ABPM may be particularly helpful in assessing BP in smokers. Smoking raises BP acutely, and the level returns to baseline about 15 minutes after stopping.</p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 3 Cardiovascular Disease Risk</title>
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		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Jun 2010 23:08:54 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Internal Medicine]]></category>
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		<description><![CDATA[The relationship between BP and risk of CVD events is continuous, consistent, and independent of other risk factors. The higher the BP, the greater the chance of heart attack, HF, stroke, and kidney diseases. The presence of each additional risk factor compounds the risk from hypertension as illustrated in figure 12. The easy and rapid [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><span style="color: #000000;">The relationship between BP and risk of CVD events is continuous, consistent, and independent of other risk factors. The higher the BP, the greater the chance of heart attack, HF, stroke, and kidney diseases. The presence of each additional risk factor compounds the risk from hypertension as illustrated in figure 12. The easy and rapid calculation of a Framingham CHD risk score using published tables may assist the clinician and patient in demonstrating the benefits of treatment. Management of these other risk factors is essential and should follow the established guidelines for controlling these coexisting problems that contribute to overall cardiovascular risk.</span></p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/10-yr-risk.jpg"><span style="color: #000000;"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1065" title="10 yr risk" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/10-yr-risk-300x286.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="286" /></span></a></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Impressive evidence has accumulated to warrant greater attention to the importance of SBP as a major risk factor for CVDs. Changing patterns of BP occur with increasing age. The rise in SBP continues throughout life in contrast to DBP, which rises until approximately age 50, tends to level off over the next decade, and may remain the same or fall later in life (figure 13).</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Diastolic hypertension predominates before age 50, either alone or in combination with SBP elevation. The prevalence of systolic hypertension increases with age, and above 50 years of age, systolic hypertension represents the most common form of hypertension. DBP is a more potent cardiovascular risk factor than SBP until age 50; thereafter, SBP is more important</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Clinical trials have demonstrated that control of isolated systolic hypertension reduces total mortality, cardiovascular mortality, stroke, and HF events. Both observational studies and clinical trial data suggest that poor SBP control is largely responsible for the unacceptably low rates of overall BP control. In the Antihypertensive and Lipid Lowering Treatment to Prevent Heart Attack Trial (ALLHAT) and the Controlled Onset Verapamil Investigation of Cardiovascular End Points (CONVINCE) Trial, DBP control rates exceeded 90 percent, but SBP control rates were considerably less (60–70 percent). Poor SBP control is at least in part related to physician attitudes. A survey of primary care physicians indicated that three-fourths of them failed to initiate </span><span style="color: #000000;">antihypertensive therapy in older individuals with SBP of 140–159 mmHg, and most primary care physicians did not pursue control to &lt;140 mmHg. that the diastolic pressure is more important than SBP and thus treat accordingly. Greater emphasis must clearly be placed on managing systolic hypertension. Otherwise, as the United States population becomes older, the toll of uncontrolledSBP will cause increased rates of CVDs and renal diseases.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;"><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-13.jpg"><span style="color: #000000;"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1066" title="Figure 13" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-13-300x173.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="173" /></span></a></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;"> </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;"> </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;"> </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;"> </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;"> </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">The prevention and management of hypertension are major public health challenges for the United States. If the rise in BP with age could be prevented</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">or diminished, much of hypertension, cardiovascular and renal disease, and stroke might be prevented. A number of important causal factors</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">for hypertension have been identified, including excess body weight; excess dietary sodium intake; reduced physical activity; inadequate intake of fruits, vegetables, and potassium; and excess alcohol intake. The prevalence of these characteristics is high. At least 122 million Americans are overweight or obese. Mean sodium intake is approximately 4,100 mg per day for men and 2,750 mg per day for women, 75 percent of which comes from processed foods. Fewer than 20 percent of Americans engage in regular physical activity, and fewer than 25 percent consume five or more servings of fruits and vegetables daily.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Because the lifetime risk of developing hypertension is very high, a public health strategy, which complements the hypertension treatment strategy, is warranted. To prevent BP levels from rising, primary prevention measures should be introduced to reduce or minimize these causal factors in the population, particularly in individuals with prehypertension. A population approach that decreases the BP level in the general population by even modest amounts has the potential to substantially reduce morbidity and mortality or at least delay the onset of hypertension. For example, it has been estimated that a</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">5 mmHg reduction of SBP in the population would result in a 14 percent overall reduction in mortality due to stroke, a 9 percent reduction in mortality due to CHD, and a 7 percent decrease in all-cause mortality.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Barriers to prevention include cultural norms; insufficient attention to health education by health care practitioners; lack of reimbursement for health education services; lack of access to places to engage in physical activity; larger servings of food in restaurants; lack of availability of healthy food choices in many schools, worksites, and restaurants; lack of exercise programs in schools; large amounts of sodium added to foods by the food industry and restaurants; and the higher cost of food products that are lower in sodium and calories.10</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #000000;">Overcoming the barriers will require a multipronged approach directed not only to high-risk populations, but also to communities, schools, worksites, and the food industry. The recent recommendations by the American Public Health Association and the NHBPEP Coordinating Committee that the food industry, including manufacturers and restaurants, reduce sodium in the food supply by 50 percent over the next decade is the type of approach which, if implemented, would reduce BP in the population.</span></p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 2 Hypertension Classifications</title>
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		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Jun 2010 22:53:17 +0000</pubDate>
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				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>
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		<description><![CDATA[Because of the new data on lifetime risk of hypertension and the impressive increase in the risk of cardiovascular complications associated with levels of BP previously considered to be normal, the JNC 7 report has introduced a new classification that includes the term “prehypertension” for those with BPs ranging from 120–139 mmHg systolic and/or 80–89 [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Because of the new data on lifetime risk of hypertension and the impressive increase in the risk of cardiovascular complications associated with levels of BP previously considered to be normal, the JNC 7 report has introduced a new classification that includes the term “prehypertension” for those with BPs ranging from 120–139 mmHg systolic and/or 80–89 mmHg diastolic. This new designation is intended to identify those individuals in whom early intervention by adoption of healthy lifestyles could reduce BP, decrease the rate of progression of BP to hypertensive levels with age, or prevent hypertension entirely. Another change in classification from JNC 6 is the combining of stage 2 and stage 3 hypertension into a single stage 2 category. This revision reflects the fact that the approach to the management of the former two groups is similar.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/BP-Classification-JNC7-Table-21.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1060" title="BP Classification JNC7 Table 2" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/BP-Classification-JNC7-Table-21-300x193.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="193" /></a></p>
<p>Table 3 provides a classification of BP for adults 18 years and older. The classification is based on the average of two or more properly measured, seated, BP readings on each of two or more office visits. Prehypertension is <strong>not </strong>a disease category. Rather, it is a designation chosen to identify individuals at high risk of developing hypertension, so that both patients and clinicians are alerted to this risk and encouraged to intervene and prevent or delay the disease from developing. Individuals who are prehypertensive are <strong>not </strong>candidates for drug therapy based on their level of BP and should be firmly and unambiguously advised to practice lifestyle modification in order to reduce their risk of developing hypertension in the future (see Lifestyle Modifications). Moreover, individuals with prehypertension, who <strong>also </strong>have diabetes or kidney disease, should be considered candidates for appropriate drug therapy if a trial of lifestyle modification fails to reduce their BP to 130/80 mmHg or less.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/BP-Classification.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1061" title="BP Classification" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/BP-Classification-300x203.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="203" /></a></p>
<p>This classification does not stratify hypertensive individuals by the presence or absence of risk factors or target organ damage in order to make different treatment recommendations, should either or both be present. JNC 7 suggests that <strong>all </strong>people with hypertension (stages 1 and 2) be treated. The treatment goal for individuals with hypertension and no other compelling conditions is &lt;140/90 mmHg (see Compelling Indications). The goal for individuals with prehypertension and no compelling indications is to lower BP to normal levels with lifestyle changes, and prevent the progressive rise in BP using the recommended lifestyle modifications (see Lifestyle Modifications).</p>
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		<title>JNC 7 Part 1 Overview</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/jnc-7-part-1-overview/</link>
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		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Jun 2010 22:30:43 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Hypertension]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=1048</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) have indicated that 50 million or more Americans have high BP warranting some form of treatment. Worldwide prevalence estimates for hypertension may be as much as 1 billion individuals, and approximately 7.1 million deaths per year may be attributable to hypertension. The World Health Organization [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) have indicated that 50 million or more Americans have high BP warranting some form of treatment. Worldwide prevalence estimates for hypertension may be as much as 1 billion individuals, and approximately 7.1 million deaths per year may be attributable to hypertension. The World Health Organization reports that suboptimal BP (&gt;115 mmHg SBP) is responsible for 62 percent of cerebrovascular disease and 49 percent of ischemic heart disease (IHD), with little variation by sex. In addition, suboptimal BP is the number one attributable risk factor for death throughout the world.</p>
<p>Considerable success has been achieved in the past in meeting the goals of the program. The awareness of hypertension among Americans has improved from a level of 51 percent in the period 1976–1980 to 70 percent in 1999–2000 (table 1).</p>
<p>The percentage of patients with hypertension receiving treatment has increased from 31 percent to 59 percent in the same period, and the percentage of persons with high BP controlled to below 140/90 mmHg has increased from 10 percent to 34 percent. Between 1960 and 1991, median SBP for individuals ages 60–74 declined by approximately 16 mmHg (figure 1). These changes have been associated with highly favorable trends in the morbidity and mortality attributed to hypertension. Since 1972, age-adjusted death rates from stroke and coronary heart disease (CHD) have declined by approximately 60 percent and 50 percent, respectively (figures 2 and 3). These benefits have occurred independent of gender, age, race, or socioeconomic status. Within the last two decades, better treatment of hypertension has been associated with a considerable reduction in the hospital case-fatality rate for heart failure (HF) (figure 4). This information suggests that there have been substantial improvements.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/BP-stroke-decline.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1049" title="Figure 2" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/BP-stroke-decline-300x220.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="220" /></a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-3.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1051" title="Figure 3" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-3-300x220.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="220" /></a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-4.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1052" title="Figure 4" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-4-300x202.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="202" /></a></p>
<p>However, these improvements have not been extended to the total population. Current control rates for hypertension in the United States are clearly unacceptable. Approximately 30 percent of adults are still unaware of their hypertension, &gt;40 percent of individuals with hypertension are not on treatment, and two-thirds of hypertensive patients are not being controlled to BP levels &lt;140/90 mmHg (table 1). Furthermore, the decline rates in CHD- and stroke-associated deaths have slowed in the past hypertension prior to developing HF, have continued to increase (figures 5 and 6). Moreover, there is an increasing trend in end-stage renal disease (ESRD) by primary diagnosis. Hypertension is second only to diabetes as the most common antecedent for this condition (figure 7). Undiagnosed, untreated, and uncontrolled hypertension clearly places a substantial strain on the health care delivery system.</p>
<p>Hypertension is an increasingly important medical and public health issue. The prevalence of hypertension increases with advancing age to the point where more than half of people 60–69 years of age and approximately three-fourths of those 70 years of age and older are affected. The age related rise in SBP is primarily responsible for an increase in both incidence and prevalence of hypertension with increasing age.</p>
<p>Whereas the short-term absolute risk for hypertension is conveyed effectively by incidence rates, the long-term risk is best summarized by the lifetime risk statistic, which is the probability of developing hypertension during the decade. In addition, the prevalence and hospitalization rates of HF, wherein the majority of patients have</p>
<p>remaining years of life (either adjusted or unadjusted for competing causes of death). Framingham Heart Study investigators recently reported the lifetime risk of hypertension to be approximately 90 percent for men and women who were nonhypertensive at 55 or 65 years and survived to age 80–85 (figure 8).   Even after adjusting for competing mortality, the remaining lifetime risks of hypertension were 86–90 percent in women and 81–83 percent in men.</p>
<p>The impressive increase of BP to hypertensive levels with age is also illustrated by data indicating that the 4-year rates of progression to hypertension are 50 percent for those 65 years and older with BP in the 130–139/85–89 mmHg range and 26 percent for those with BP between 120–129/80–84 mmHg range.</p>
<p>Data from observational studies involving more than 1 million individuals have indicated that death from both IHD and stroke increases progressively and linearly from levels as low as 115 mmHg SBP and 75 mmHg DBP upward (figures 9 and 10). The increased risks are present in individuals ranging from 40 to 89 years of age. For every 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic increase in BP, there is a doubling of mortality from both IHD and stroke.</p>
<p>In addition, longitudinal data obtained from the Framingham Heart Study have indicated that BP values between 130–139/85–89 mmHg are associated with a more than twofold increase in relative risk from cardiovascular disease (CVD) as compared with those with BP levels below 120/80 mmHg.</p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-9.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1053" title="Figure 9" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-9-300x207.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="207" /></a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-11.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-1054" title="Figure 11" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/06/Figure-11-300x229.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="229" /></a></p>
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		<title>questions_c</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/questions_c/</link>
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		<pubDate>Tue, 27 Apr 2010 09:24:09 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Cardiovascular Medicine]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=825</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/plugins/quizzin/style.css" />
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<form action="" method="post" class="quiz-form" id="quiz-22">
<div class='quizzin-question' id='question-1'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 56-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit after cardiac arrest was found to have hypokalemia (2.9 meq/l). He was treated by intravenous KCl administration of 80 meq over the next 4 hours. Repeated measurement of potassium revealed a level of 3.2 meq/l. He was then given another 40 meq of KCl intravenously and started on 20 meq of KCl daily through a nasogastric tube. His next serum potassium measurement was 3.4 meq/l. After another 40 meq of KCl the level was 3.5 meq/l. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his refractoriness to intravenous potassium replacement? </div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='906' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-906' id='answer-id-4964' class='answer answer-1 wrong-answer-label' value='4964' /><label for='answer-id-4964' id='answer-label-4964' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-1'><span>A - 	His total potassium deficit is much higher than the amount given to him. </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-906' id='answer-id-4965' class='answer answer-1 wrong-answer-label' value='4965' /><label for='answer-id-4965' id='answer-label-4965' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-1'><span> B - 	He is most likely to have continuing potassium loss that is not apparent. </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-906' id='answer-id-4966' class='answer answer-1 correct-answer-label' value='4966' /><label for='answer-id-4966' id='answer-label-4966' class='correct-answer-label answer label-1'><span>C - 	He has concomitant hypomagnesemia. </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-906' id='answer-id-4967' class='answer answer-1 wrong-answer-label' value='4967' /><label for='answer-id-4967' id='answer-label-4967' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-1'><span>D - 	He has concomitant hypocalcemia. </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-906' id='answer-id-4968' class='answer answer-1 wrong-answer-label' value='4968' /><label for='answer-id-4968' id='answer-label-4968' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-1'><span>E - 	He has concomitant hypernatremia. </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-1'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Emphasize importance of hypomagnesemia for correction of hypokalemia.
<p></p>
	
The most common case for refractory hypokalemia is concomitant hypomagnesemia. Until this is corrected it may be difficult to correct hypokalemia and hypocalcemia. In all patients that have cardiac arrhythmias, coronary artery disease, and congestive heart disease it is necessary to have the magnesium level determined and kept over 2.0 meq/l at all times. This, along with potassium level over 4.0 meq/l, is prerequisite for successful therapy. Even if the potassium deficits in some patients may be in the range of 400-600 meq their serum potassium levels should reflect it (levels in the range of 2.0-2.4 meq/l) and respond with appropriate increase with replacement). In addition, potassium losses are relatively easy to detect, especially in the setting of an intensive care unit, where urine outputs, vomited material, and stools are carefully measured. Hyponatremia and hypocalcemia have no significant impact on efficacy of the potassium replacement. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-2'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>Which one of these is not a positive risk factor for coronary heart disease (CHD)? </div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='907' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-907' id='answer-id-4969' class='answer answer-2 wrong-answer-label' value='4969' /><label for='answer-id-4969' id='answer-label-4969' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-2'><span>A - 	Hypertension controlled on medications </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-907' id='answer-id-4970' class='answer answer-2 wrong-answer-label' value='4970' /><label for='answer-id-4970' id='answer-label-4970' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-2'><span>B - 	Diabetes mellitus </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-907' id='answer-id-4971' class='answer answer-2 wrong-answer-label' value='4971' /><label for='answer-id-4971' id='answer-label-4971' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-2'><span>C - 	Low HDL Cholesterol </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-907' id='answer-id-4972' class='answer answer-2 correct-answer-label' value='4972' /><label for='answer-id-4972' id='answer-label-4972' class='correct-answer-label answer label-2'><span>D - 	High HDL
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-907' id='answer-id-4973' class='answer answer-2 wrong-answer-label' value='4973' /><label for='answer-id-4973' id='answer-label-4973' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-2'><span>E - 	</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-2'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Review risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
</p><p>
	
High HDL, which is defined as HDL cholesterol > or = 60 mg/dL, reduces risk of CHD by one and is known as a negative risk factor. Positive risk factors include: Male > or = 45 years, female > or = 55 years or premature menopause without estrogen replacement therapy, family history of premature CHD (male sibling or father who died of CHD before 55 years of age or female sibling or mother who died of CHD before 65 years of age), current cigarette smoking, hypertension (whether taking medications or not), diabetes mellitus and low HDL, which is defined as HDL< 35 mg/dL. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-3'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>Which is not a risk factor for deep venous thrombosis (DVT)?</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='908' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-908' id='answer-id-4974' class='answer answer-3 wrong-answer-label' value='4974' /><label for='answer-id-4974' id='answer-label-4974' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-3'><span>A - 	Obesity
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-908' id='answer-id-4975' class='answer answer-3 wrong-answer-label' value='4975' /><label for='answer-id-4975' id='answer-label-4975' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-3'><span>B - 	Malignancy
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-908' id='answer-id-4976' class='answer answer-3 wrong-answer-label' value='4976' /><label for='answer-id-4976' id='answer-label-4976' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-3'><span>C - 	Previous DVT
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-908' id='answer-id-4977' class='answer answer-3 correct-answer-label' value='4977' /><label for='answer-id-4977' id='answer-label-4977' class='correct-answer-label answer label-3'><span>D - 	Surgery < 30 minutes
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-908' id='answer-id-4978' class='answer answer-3 wrong-answer-label' value='4978' /><label for='answer-id-4978' id='answer-label-4978' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-3'><span>E - 	None of the above </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-3'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Review risk factors for DVT.
</p> <p> 
	
Obesity, malignancy, previous DVT, prolonged immobilization, trauma, estrogen therapy and surgery > 30 minutes are all significant risk factors for DVT. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-4'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 58-year-old female was treated with amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. All of the following are possible side effects of this drug except:
	</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='909' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-909' id='answer-id-4979' class='answer answer-4 wrong-answer-label' value='4979' /><label for='answer-id-4979' id='answer-label-4979' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-4'><span>A - 	Hyperthyroidism
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-909' id='answer-id-4980' class='answer answer-4 wrong-answer-label' value='4980' /><label for='answer-id-4980' id='answer-label-4980' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-4'><span>B - 	Hypothyroidism
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-909' id='answer-id-4981' class='answer answer-4 wrong-answer-label' value='4981' /><label for='answer-id-4981' id='answer-label-4981' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-4'><span>C - 	Pulmonary fibrosis
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-909' id='answer-id-4982' class='answer answer-4 wrong-answer-label' value='4982' /><label for='answer-id-4982' id='answer-label-4982' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-4'><span>D - 	AV block
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-909' id='answer-id-4983' class='answer answer-4 correct-answer-label' value='4983' /><label for='answer-id-4983' id='answer-label-4983' class='correct-answer-label answer label-4'><span>E - 	Focal hepatic necrosis </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-4'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Review side effects of amiodarone therapy.
</p><p>
	
Subclinical hypothyroidism evidenced by small increase in serum TSH and low T4 concentrations occurs in approximately 20% of patients treated with amiodarone. Some patients, particularly those with chronic autoimmune thyroiditis, may become overtly hypothyroid. Symptoms can develop from 2 weeks to as late as 39 months after the initiation of the amiodarone therapy.
</p><p>
	
About 3% of patients in the U.S. who are treated with amiodarone become hyperthyroid between 4 months and 3 years after initiation of therapy. It is more common in iodine deficient parts of the world (in about 10% of patients). It is important to note that symptoms may be attenuated by beta-blocking activity of the amiodarone. Serum TSH level is the best test to diagnose this complication.
</p><p>
	
Pulmonary disease occurs in 5-15% of patients and is the most common cause of death associated with amiodarone therapy. The pathologic changes include alveolar thickening and exudation associated with dense interstitial infiltrates and fibrosis. The mechanism for these changes is not understood. Symptoms may start as soon as 1 month and as late as 5 years after amiodarone is begun. There is a dose response relationship; in one study no cases were seen when maintenance dose was below 305 mg/day.
</p><p>
	
Amiodarone can directly cause sinus bradycardia and AV block due to its calcium channel blocking activity. However, of greater concern is the prolongation of repolarization and QT interval due to blockade of the potassium channels. Important to note – incidence of proarrhythmia is very low with amiodarone and incidence of torsade de pointes is below 1%.
</p><p>
	
A transient rise in serum aminotransferase level is commonly seen after amiodarone therapy initiation. Patients are usually asymptomatic, but the drug should be stopped if there is more than a two-fold elevation because of the potential for cirrhosis and liver failure.
</p><p>
	
The rest of the side effects include corneal microdeposits, photosensitivity and blue-gray discoloration of the skin, sterile epididymitis, etc. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-5'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 43-year-old African-American man with diabetes mellitus type 2 was found to have blood pressure in the range of 148-156/89-96 on 3 occasions over a 2 month period. Which of the following would be the best initial antihypertensive medication for this patient?
	
</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='910' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-910' id='answer-id-4984' class='answer answer-5 wrong-answer-label' value='4984' /><label for='answer-id-4984' id='answer-label-4984' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-5'><span>A - 	Diuretic
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-910' id='answer-id-4985' class='answer answer-5 wrong-answer-label' value='4985' /><label for='answer-id-4985' id='answer-label-4985' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-5'><span>B - 	Calcium channel blocker
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-910' id='answer-id-4986' class='answer answer-5 correct-answer-label' value='4986' /><label for='answer-id-4986' id='answer-label-4986' class='correct-answer-label answer label-5'><span>C - 	ACE inhibitor
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-910' id='answer-id-4987' class='answer answer-5 wrong-answer-label' value='4987' /><label for='answer-id-4987' id='answer-label-4987' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-5'><span>D - 	Beta blocker
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-910' id='answer-id-4988' class='answer answer-5 wrong-answer-label' value='4988' /><label for='answer-id-4988' id='answer-label-4988' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-5'><span>E - 	Central presynaptic alpha-2 receptor stimulant</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-5'><p class='explanation'><p>It has been clearly shown that diabetics benefit from ACE-inhibitor therapy. It is indicated to start ACE-inhibitors in any diabetic with elevated blood pressure, and in the case of documented microalbuminuria, even if the blood pressure is within the normal range because ACE-inhibitors slow the deterioration of kidney function and delay the development of end stage renal disease.</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-6'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 54-year-old male has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. He has typical clinical signs, but he also has marked dyspnea on exertion, which is occasionally accompanied with chest pain. This pain is mid-sternal, pressing, and radiates to neck and left shoulder. Rest relieves pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following options is the best management for this patient?</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='911' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-911' id='answer-id-4989' class='answer answer-6 wrong-answer-label' value='4989' /><label for='answer-id-4989' id='answer-label-4989' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-6'><span>A - 	Start patient on levothyroxine and proceed with cardiac evaluation simultaneously.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-911' id='answer-id-4990' class='answer answer-6 wrong-answer-label' value='4990' /><label for='answer-id-4990' id='answer-label-4990' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-6'><span>B - 	Start patient on levothyroxine and proceed with cardiac evaluation in 6 weeks when it can be demonstrated that patient is euthyroid.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-911' id='answer-id-4991' class='answer answer-6 wrong-answer-label' value='4991' /><label for='answer-id-4991' id='answer-label-4991' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-6'><span>C - 	Patient should be started on levothyroxine and aspirin and observed for next 3 months because it is likely that his dyspnea and chest pain will disappear with successful treatment of hypothyroidism.</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-911' id='answer-id-4992' class='answer answer-6 correct-answer-label' value='4992' /><label for='answer-id-4992' id='answer-label-4992' class='correct-answer-label answer label-6'><span>D - 	Patient should have cardiac evaluation for coronary artery disease, if present, should be corrected (PTCA, CABG) prior to initiation of the levothyroxine replacement therapy.</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-911' id='answer-id-4993' class='answer answer-6 wrong-answer-label' value='4993' /><label for='answer-id-4993' id='answer-label-4993' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-6'><span>E - 	Patient should be started on levothyroxine and long-acting nitrate. Cardiac evaluation should be postponed at least 1 year because his cardiac condition is most likely not caused by coronary artery disease, but more likely by myocardiopathy, which ma</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-6'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Emphasize importance of exclusion of significant cardiac disease before start of levothyroxine supplementation.
</p><p>
	
Historically, treatment of patients with myxedema and heart disease, particularly coronary artery disease, was very difficult because levothyroxine replacement was frequently associated with exacerbation of angina, heart failure, or myocardial infarction. Today, when coronary angioplasty and coronary artery bypass surgery are widely available, patients with hypothyroidism and signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease should be first evaluated and treated for their cardiac condition, after which levothyroxine replacement is much better tolerated. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-7'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>In patients with deep venous thrombosis, the INR should be maintained in which of the following ranges?
	
</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='912' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-912' id='answer-id-4994' class='answer answer-7 wrong-answer-label' value='4994' /><label for='answer-id-4994' id='answer-label-4994' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-7'><span>A - 	1.5 -2.0
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-912' id='answer-id-4995' class='answer answer-7 correct-answer-label' value='4995' /><label for='answer-id-4995' id='answer-label-4995' class='correct-answer-label answer label-7'><span>B - 	2.0 -3.0
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-912' id='answer-id-4996' class='answer answer-7 wrong-answer-label' value='4996' /><label for='answer-id-4996' id='answer-label-4996' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-7'><span>C - 	1.5 - 3.5
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-912' id='answer-id-4997' class='answer answer-7 wrong-answer-label' value='4997' /><label for='answer-id-4997' id='answer-label-4997' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-7'><span>D - 	>2.0
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-912' id='answer-id-4998' class='answer answer-7 wrong-answer-label' value='4998' /><label for='answer-id-4998' id='answer-label-4998' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-7'><span>E - 	3.0 – 4.0</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-7'><p class='explanation'><p>Treatment should be started with IV Heparin bolus followed by continuous infusion titrated to apt approximately twice the control value (in 5% of the patients thrombocytopenia develops). Heparin treatment should be maintained for at least 5-7 days. Low molecular weight heparin (4000-6000 Daltons) is reported to be as effective as or better than conventional unfractionated heparin in preventing extension or recurrence of venous thrombosis (therapy is administered subcutaneously in fixed doses once or twice a day). Warfarin may be administered as early as first day of the heparin therapy if the apt is therapeutic. It is important to overlap heparin treatment with oral anticoagulation therapy for 4-5 days because the full anticoagulant effect of warfarin is delayed. INR should be kept in 2.0 – 3.0 range. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-8'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>All of the following are absolute contraindications for anticoagulation except:
	</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='913' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-913' id='answer-id-4999' class='answer answer-8 correct-answer-label' value='4999' /><label for='answer-id-4999' id='answer-label-4999' class='correct-answer-label answer label-8'><span>A - 	Hemorrhagic diathesis
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-913' id='answer-id-5000' class='answer answer-8 wrong-answer-label' value='5000' /><label for='answer-id-5000' id='answer-label-5000' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-8'><span>B - 	Subarachnoid or cerebral hemorrhage
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-913' id='answer-id-5001' class='answer answer-8 wrong-answer-label' value='5001' /><label for='answer-id-5001' id='answer-label-5001' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-8'><span>C - 	Malignant hypertension
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-913' id='answer-id-5002' class='answer answer-8 wrong-answer-label' value='5002' /><label for='answer-id-5002' id='answer-label-5002' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-8'><span>D - 	Recent brain, eye or spinal cord surgery
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-913' id='answer-id-5003' class='answer answer-8 wrong-answer-label' value='5003' /><label for='answer-id-5003' id='answer-label-5003' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-8'><span>E - 	Serious active bleeding (postoperative, spontaneous or trauma-associated) </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-8'><p class='explanation'>Hemorrhagic diathesis represents a relative contraindication to anticoagulation. All of the other options are absolute contraindications.</p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-9'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>The heart murmur of valvular aortic stenosis has which of the following characteristics?

</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='914' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-914' id='answer-id-5004' class='answer answer-9 wrong-answer-label' value='5004' /><label for='answer-id-5004' id='answer-label-5004' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-9'><span>A - 	Maximum intensity of the murmur is usually located along the lower left sternal border.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-914' id='answer-id-5005' class='answer answer-9 correct-answer-label' value='5005' /><label for='answer-id-5005' id='answer-label-5005' class='correct-answer-label answer label-9'><span>B - 	Maximum intensity is appreciated over the right second interspace.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-914' id='answer-id-5006' class='answer answer-9 wrong-answer-label' value='5006' /><label for='answer-id-5006' id='answer-label-5006' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-9'><span>C - 	Murmur radiates to the left axilla.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-914' id='answer-id-5007' class='answer answer-9 wrong-answer-label' value='5007' /><label for='answer-id-5007' id='answer-label-5007' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-9'><span>D - 	Murmur radiates to the back.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-914' id='answer-id-5008' class='answer answer-9 wrong-answer-label' value='5008' /><label for='answer-id-5008' id='answer-label-5008' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-9'><span>E - 	In standing position murmur increases in intensity. </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-9'><p class='explanation'>In valvular aortic stenosis, the maximum intensity is appreciated over the right second interspace (a thrill may be palpable over the same area). This murmur radiates into the neck and over both carotid arteries. Atherosclerosis in elderly patients and congenital bicuspid valve are the most common causes of valvular aortic stenosis. Supravalvular stenosis has point of maximum intensity somewhat higher, and intensity of the radiating murmur may be more intense over the right carotid artery than over the left. In subvalvular left ventricular outflow obstruction (Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) the maximum intensity of the murmur is usually located along lower left sternal border or over the cardiac apex. It radiates poorly to the base of the neck. Standing position increases intensity of the murmur of subvalvular left ventricular obstruction and decreases that of the valvular aortic stenosis. </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-10'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>Inhalation of the amyl nitrite may be used to differentiate between:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='915' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-915' id='answer-id-5009' class='answer answer-10 wrong-answer-label' value='5009' /><label for='answer-id-5009' id='answer-label-5009' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-10'><span>A - 	Subvalvular from valvular aortic stenosis.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-915' id='answer-id-5010' class='answer answer-10 wrong-answer-label' value='5010' /><label for='answer-id-5010' id='answer-label-5010' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-10'><span>B - 	Left sided from right sided systolic murmurs
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-915' id='answer-id-5011' class='answer answer-10 correct-answer-label' value='5011' /><label for='answer-id-5011' id='answer-label-5011' class='correct-answer-label answer label-10'><span>C - 	Regurgitant from ejection systolic murmurs
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-915' id='answer-id-5012' class='answer answer-10 wrong-answer-label' value='5012' /><label for='answer-id-5012' id='answer-label-5012' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-10'><span>D - 	Mitral valve prolapse from mitral regurgitation caused by rheumatic fever.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-915' id='answer-id-5013' class='answer answer-10 wrong-answer-label' value='5013' /><label for='answer-id-5013' id='answer-label-5013' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-10'><span>E - 	Supravalvular from valvular aortic stenosis </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-10'><p class='explanation'><P> Educational Objective: Review maneuvers for the differentiation of murmurs.
</p><p>
	
Amyl nitrite inhalation lowers systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure. These effects will then decrease the severity of the regurgitation as well as the intensity of regurgitant murmurs. In aortic stenosis, the intensity of the ejection systolic murmur will increase due to increased flow across the stenotic aortic valve. In Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, murmur intensity increases due to an accentuated left ventricular outflow obstruction.</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-11'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>All of the following are causes of holosystolic murmurs except:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='916' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-916' id='answer-id-5014' class='answer answer-11 wrong-answer-label' value='5014' /><label for='answer-id-5014' id='answer-label-5014' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-11'><span>A - 	Mitral regurgitation
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-916' id='answer-id-5015' class='answer answer-11 wrong-answer-label' value='5015' /><label for='answer-id-5015' id='answer-label-5015' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-11'><span>B - 	Tricuspid regurgitation
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-916' id='answer-id-5016' class='answer answer-11 wrong-answer-label' value='5016' /><label for='answer-id-5016' id='answer-label-5016' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-11'><span>C - 	Ventricular septal defect
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-916' id='answer-id-5017' class='answer answer-11 correct-answer-label' value='5017' /><label for='answer-id-5017' id='answer-label-5017' class='correct-answer-label answer label-11'><span>D - 	Severe aortic stenosis
	
</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-916' id='answer-id-5018' class='answer answer-11 wrong-answer-label' value='5018' /><label for='answer-id-5018' id='answer-label-5018' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-11'><span>E - 	All of the above</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-11'><p class='explanation'>Holosystolic, or pansystolic, murmurs are usually regurgitant murmurs and occur when blood flows from a chamber whose pressure throughout systole is higher than the pressure in the chamber receiving the flow. There are three causes of holosystolic murmurs: mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation, and ventricular septal defect. </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-12'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A patient with supraventricular tachycardia received 6 mg of adenosine IV and developed third-degree heart block. The correct statement about this situation is:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='917' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-917' id='answer-id-5019' class='answer answer-12 wrong-answer-label' value='5019' /><label for='answer-id-5019' id='answer-label-5019' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-12'><span> 	A - 	This event uncovered serious AV nodal disease and this patient will require permanent pacemaker placement.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-917' id='answer-id-5020' class='answer answer-12 correct-answer-label' value='5020' /><label for='answer-id-5020' id='answer-label-5020' class='correct-answer-label answer label-12'><span>B - 	Patients who develop high grade AV block on one dose of adenosine should not receive additional doses because more serious arrhythmias may occur.</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-917' id='answer-id-5021' class='answer answer-12 wrong-answer-label' value='5021' /><label for='answer-id-5021' id='answer-label-5021' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-12'><span>C - 	It is common for adenosine to produce benign transient asystole and third degree block.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-917' id='answer-id-5022' class='answer answer-12 wrong-answer-label' value='5022' /><label for='answer-id-5022' id='answer-label-5022' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-12'><span>D - 	Although the half-life of adenosine is short, side effects such as high degree AV block are usually long lasting.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-917' id='answer-id-5023' class='answer answer-12 wrong-answer-label' value='5023' /><label for='answer-id-5023' id='answer-label-5023' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-12'><span>E - 	Atrial fibrillation is a very rare occurrence with adenosine therapy. </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-12'><p class='explanation'><p> Adverse effects of adenosine therapy occur in 40-60% of patients, but because adenosine’s half-life is short (5-10 seconds), both its intended and side effects are short lived. Caffeine and theophylline are used to counteract effects of adenosine.
</p><p>
	
The most common cardiovascular side effects of adenosine are facial flushing, chest pain, palpitations, and hypotension. The primary mechanism of action of adenosine is to decrease conduction through the AV node; it can therefore produce a transient first, second, or even higher degree of AV block.
</p><p>
	
While bradyarrhythmias and AV nodal prolongation are common, transient asystole is a rare complication of adenosine therapy. Patients who develop high-level block on one dose of adenosine should not receive additional doses. More serious arrhythmias may occur, including prolonged ventricular asystole, ventricular tachycardia, nonsustained polymorphic ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Adenosine should be used with caution in patients with a prolonged QT interval.
</p><p>
	
A few patients have been reported to develop atrial fibrillation after adenosine injection, and incidence may be as high as 12-17% in certain subgroups of patients. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-13'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>All of the following statements about alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy are true except:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='918' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-918' id='answer-id-5024' class='answer answer-13 wrong-answer-label' value='5024' /><label for='answer-id-5024' id='answer-label-5024' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-13'><span>A - 	Development of cardiomyopathy correlates with the total lifetime dose of ethanol.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-918' id='answer-id-5025' class='answer answer-13 wrong-answer-label' value='5025' /><label for='answer-id-5025' id='answer-label-5025' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-13'><span>B - 	Individual susceptibility is important since many heavy drinkers do not develop cardiomyopathy.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-918' id='answer-id-5026' class='answer answer-13 wrong-answer-label' value='5026' /><label for='answer-id-5026' id='answer-label-5026' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-13'><span>C - 	Prevalence of alcoholic cardiomyopathy is similar in men and women who are similar in age and nutrition.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-918' id='answer-id-5027' class='answer answer-13 wrong-answer-label' value='5027' /><label for='answer-id-5027' id='answer-label-5027' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-13'><span>D - 	Women appear to have an increased sensitivity for cardiac toxicity related to ethanol.
	 </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-918' id='answer-id-5028' class='answer answer-13 correct-answer-label' value='5028' /><label for='answer-id-5028' id='answer-label-5028' class='correct-answer-label answer label-13'><span>E - 	Most alcoholics who develop cardiomyopathy do so within the first 2 years of heavy drinking (over 80 g of ethanol per day).</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-13'><p class='explanation'><p>
 The risk of developing alcoholic cardiomyopathy is related to both the mean daily alcohol intake and the duration of drinking. Most patients in whom alcoholic cardiomyopathy develops have been drinking more than 80 g of ethanol per day for more than 5 years. This corresponds to approximately one liter of wine, eight standard sized beers, or one-half pint of hard liquor each day. The risk is based upon the absolute amount of ethanol so that alcoholics who prefer less strong types of alcoholic beverage (such a beer) are not protected. However, individual susceptibility is important since many heavy drinkers do not develop either cardiomyopathy or liver disease.
</p><p>
	
The prevalence of alcoholic cardiomyopathy is similar in men and women with no significant differences in age or nutrition. However, when patients were matched for left ventricular ejection fraction, women consumed a significantly lower lifetime dose and lower daily dose of ethanol than men. Thus, women appear to have increased sensitivity for cardiac toxicity of ethanol. </p>
</p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-14'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 48-year-old male alcoholic was diagnosed with alcohol induced cardiomyopathy. He was advised of the importance of total alcohol abstinence. Which statement about his prognosis is true if he should remain abstinent? </div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='919' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-919' id='answer-id-5029' class='answer answer-14 wrong-answer-label' value='5029' /><label for='answer-id-5029' id='answer-label-5029' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-14'><span>A - 	His cardiomyopathy will most likely stay the same, but abstinence will improve his functional ability.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-919' id='answer-id-5030' class='answer answer-14 wrong-answer-label' value='5030' /><label for='answer-id-5030' id='answer-label-5030' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-14'><span>B - 	His cardiomyopathy will most likely progress but at a much slower pace than if he continued drinking.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-919' id='answer-id-5031' class='answer answer-14 correct-answer-label' value='5031' /><label for='answer-id-5031' id='answer-label-5031' class='correct-answer-label answer label-14'><span>C - 	His cardiomyopathy is most likely to improve to a significant extent if he remains abstinent.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-919' id='answer-id-5032' class='answer answer-14 wrong-answer-label' value='5032' /><label for='answer-id-5032' id='answer-label-5032' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-14'><span>D - 	His cardiomyopathy will progress regardless of his future behavior regarding alcohol consumption.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-919' id='answer-id-5033' class='answer answer-14 wrong-answer-label' value='5033' /><label for='answer-id-5033' id='answer-label-5033' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-14'><span>E - 	His cardiac function will return to normal if he remains abstinent.
</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-14'><p class='explanation'>Several studies have demonstrated that cardiac function and size of the left ventricle improve significantly in the majority of patients with alcoholic cardiomyopathy after total abstinence from alcohol. Improvement may be demonstrated as early as 3-12 weeks after the beginning of the abstinent period. However, a certain number of patients does not demonstrate any improvement in cardiac function after being abstinent even for prolonged periods of time, suggesting that the process becomes irreversible at some point. There is good evidence that this point occurs when a significant degree of the myocardial fibrosis develops.</p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-15'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 58-year-old female patient was found to be in atrial fibrillation on routine physical exam. She had not been seen by a physician for the last 2 years. Her heart rate was 92 beats/min and she was asymptomatic. The patient agreed to have a transesophageal echocardiogram performed. The procedure revealed a left atrial thrombus. What is the appropriate anticoagulation regimen for this patient?</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='920' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-920' id='answer-id-5034' class='answer answer-15 wrong-answer-label' value='5034' /><label for='answer-id-5034' id='answer-label-5034' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-15'><span>A - 	A minimum of 4 weeks of warfarin anticoagulation and then follow-up TEE to document thrombus resolution prior to cardioversion. After cardioversion, warfarin anticoagulation should be continued an additional 4 weeks.</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-920' id='answer-id-5035' class='answer answer-15 correct-answer-label' value='5035' /><label for='answer-id-5035' id='answer-label-5035' class='correct-answer-label answer label-15'><span>B - 	Minimum of 3 weeks of warfarin anticoagulation followed by additional 4 weeks after cardioversion
	 </span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-920' id='answer-id-5036' class='answer answer-15 wrong-answer-label' value='5036' /><label for='answer-id-5036' id='answer-label-5036' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-15'><span>C - 	Heparin bolus followed by IV drip for 4 weeks followed by TEE to document thrombus resolution
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-920' id='answer-id-5037' class='answer answer-15 wrong-answer-label' value='5037' /><label for='answer-id-5037' id='answer-label-5037' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-15'><span>D - 	Warfarin anticoagulation with weekly TEE until resolution of the thrombus is demonstrated with no need for further anticoagulation after cardioversion</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-920' id='answer-id-5038' class='answer answer-15 wrong-answer-label' value='5038' /><label for='answer-id-5038' id='answer-label-5038' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-15'><span>E - 	Three months of warfarin anticoagulation followed with 4 weeks after cardioversion</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-15'><p class='explanation'>If TEE can be performed, the following approach should be utilized: Administer heparin bolus and continuous drip (PTT 1.5-2.0 times control) and initiate oral warfarin. Obtain a biplane or multiplane TEE after anticoagulation with heparin is achieved to assess left atrial size and to check for the presence of left or right atrial thrombi or possible mitral stenosis. If an atrial thrombus is seen, the patient should receive a minimum of four weeks of therapeutic warfarin anticoagulation (INR 2.0-3.0) and follow-up TEE to document thrombus resolution prior to attempted cardioversion. Patients with thrombi should not be cardioverted. It is probably best to be conservative if severe spontaneous echo contrast is present, the left atrial appendage cannot be adequately evaluated for technical reasons, or TEE is contraindicated. These patients should receive a full 3 weeks of warfarin anticoagulation prior to cardioversion. Among the patients without TEE evidence of thrombus, anticoagulation should be continued to the time of cardioversion, and then continued for 4 weeks after cardioversion in all patients regardless of cardioversion method. </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-16'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 32-year old female is about to undergo tooth extraction. She is known to have mitral valve prolapse. On physical examination no murmur can be heard. Echocardiogram showed a bulging of the anterior and posterior leaflet in systole. Prior to tooth extraction, which of the following preventive antibiotic regimens should cover this patient?</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='921' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-921' id='answer-id-5039' class='answer answer-16 wrong-answer-label' value='5039' /><label for='answer-id-5039' id='answer-label-5039' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-16'><span>A - 	Cefoxitin 1 gm IV just before the procedure
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-921' id='answer-id-5040' class='answer answer-16 wrong-answer-label' value='5040' /><label for='answer-id-5040' id='answer-label-5040' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-16'><span>B - 	Amoxicillin 3gm PO 2 hours before the procedure, then 1.5 gm 6 hours after initial dose
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-921' id='answer-id-5041' class='answer answer-16 wrong-answer-label' value='5041' /><label for='answer-id-5041' id='answer-label-5041' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-16'><span>C - 	Erythromycin ethylsuccinate 800 mg PO 2 hours before the procedure and then 400 mg 6 hours after the first dose
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-921' id='answer-id-5042' class='answer answer-16 wrong-answer-label' value='5042' /><label for='answer-id-5042' id='answer-label-5042' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-16'><span>D - 	Clindamycin, 300 mg PO 1 hour before the procedure, then 150 mg 6 hours after
	
</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-921' id='answer-id-5043' class='answer answer-16 correct-answer-label' value='5043' /><label for='answer-id-5043' id='answer-label-5043' class='correct-answer-label answer label-16'><span>E - 	None of the above</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-16'><p class='explanation'>Antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis when undergoing dental, GI, or GU procedures is only indicated in patients with MVP who have a systolic murmur and/or echocardiographic evidence of mitral regurgitation. Cefoxitin is indicated for certain GI operations for prevention of infection in the operative site. Amoxicillin, erythromycin and clindamycin are all acceptable alternatives for endocarditis prophylaxis in patients with MVP if necessary. </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-17'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>All of the following are possible complications of mitral valve prolapse except:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='922' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-922' id='answer-id-5044' class='answer answer-17 wrong-answer-label' value='5044' /><label for='answer-id-5044' id='answer-label-5044' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-17'><span>A - 	TIA or stroke secondary to embolic phenomena
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-922' id='answer-id-5045' class='answer answer-17 wrong-answer-label' value='5045' /><label for='answer-id-5045' id='answer-label-5045' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-17'><span>B - 	Cardiac arrhythmias (most commonly supraventricular)
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-922' id='answer-id-5046' class='answer answer-17 wrong-answer-label' value='5046' /><label for='answer-id-5046' id='answer-label-5046' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-17'><span>C - 	Mitral regurgitation
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-922' id='answer-id-5047' class='answer answer-17 correct-answer-label' value='5047' /><label for='answer-id-5047' id='answer-label-5047' class='correct-answer-label answer label-17'><span>D - 	Chronic renal failure (due to hypoperfusion)
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-922' id='answer-id-5048' class='answer answer-17 wrong-answer-label' value='5048' /><label for='answer-id-5048' id='answer-label-5048' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-17'><span>E - 	Sudden death (rare and most often due to ventricular arrhythmias) </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-17'><p class='explanation'> The most common complication of MVP is mitral regurgitation. Bacterial endocarditis is 3-8 times more common in people with MVP than in the general population. The risk of TIA and stroke secondary to embolic phenomena by fibrin and platelet thrombi in a young patient with MVP is <0.05% per year. Of the cardiac arrhythmias complicating MVP, supraventricular arrhythmias are the most common, although in the rare instances of sudden death in patients with MVP, ventricular arrhythmias are most frequently implicated. The incidence of complications in MVP is very low (<1% per year) and generally associated with an increase in mitral leaflet thickness to >5 mm. Young patients (age<45 years) with absence of mitral systolic murmur or mitral regurgitation on Doppler echocardiography are at low risk for any complications.</p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-18'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>All of the following are causes of aortic stenosis except:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='923' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-923' id='answer-id-5049' class='answer answer-18 wrong-answer-label' value='5049' /><label for='answer-id-5049' id='answer-label-5049' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-18'><span>A - 	Congenital
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-923' id='answer-id-5050' class='answer answer-18 correct-answer-label' value='5050' /><label for='answer-id-5050' id='answer-label-5050' class='correct-answer-label answer label-18'><span>B - 	Syphilitic involvement of the aortic root
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-923' id='answer-id-5051' class='answer answer-18 wrong-answer-label' value='5051' /><label for='answer-id-5051' id='answer-label-5051' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-18'><span>C - 	Idiopathic calcification of the aortic valve
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-923' id='answer-id-5052' class='answer answer-18 wrong-answer-label' value='5052' /><label for='answer-id-5052' id='answer-label-5052' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-18'><span>D - 	Rheumatic inflammation of the aortic valve
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-923' id='answer-id-5053' class='answer answer-18 wrong-answer-label' value='5053' /><label for='answer-id-5053' id='answer-label-5053' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-18'><span>E - 	Progressive stenosis of the congenital bicuspid valve </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-18'><p class='explanation'> Congenital stenosis of the aorta, idiopathic calcification of aortic valve, Rheumatic inflammation of the valve, and progressive stenosis of the bicuspid valve are all established etiologic mechanisms of aortic stenosis. Syphilitic involvement of the aortic root usually results in the dilatation of the aortic root, resulting in aortic insufficiency and the development of an aneurysm of the ascending part of the aortic arch.</p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-19'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>All of the following are features of cardiac effects of hypothyroidism except: </div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='924' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-924' id='answer-id-5054' class='answer answer-19 wrong-answer-label' value='5054' /><label for='answer-id-5054' id='answer-label-5054' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-19'><span> A - 	Bradycardia
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-924' id='answer-id-5055' class='answer answer-19 correct-answer-label' value='5055' /><label for='answer-id-5055' id='answer-label-5055' class='correct-answer-label answer label-19'><span>B - 	Hypotension
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-924' id='answer-id-5056' class='answer answer-19 wrong-answer-label' value='5056' /><label for='answer-id-5056' id='answer-label-5056' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-19'><span>C - 	Poor cardiac contractility
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-924' id='answer-id-5057' class='answer answer-19 wrong-answer-label' value='5057' /><label for='answer-id-5057' id='answer-label-5057' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-19'><span>D - 	Pericardial effusion
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-924' id='answer-id-5058' class='answer answer-19 wrong-answer-label' value='5058' /><label for='answer-id-5058' id='answer-label-5058' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-19'><span>E - 	Peripheral edema </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-19'><p class='explanation'>Educational objective: Review cardiac effects of hypothyroidism. The major cardiovascular changes that occur in hypothyroidism include a decrease in cardiac contractility and mass, a reduction in heart rate, and an increase in peripheral vascular resistance. Symptoms and signs of cardiovascular dysfunction are not common or prominent in patients with hypothyroidism. Exertional dyspnea and exercise intolerance are typical, although these symptoms are probably due to decreased activity or muscle dysfunction in most cases. Bradycardia is the most common rhythm disturbance, but premature ventricular beats are seen, and--rarely--ventricular tachycardia with a long QT interval (torsade de pointes). Approximately 20-40% of patients with hypothyroidism have hypertension, even though cardiac output is reduced. A few patients have a pericardial effusion, which is rarely hemodynamically important. Periorbital edema and nonpitting edema of the hands and feet are characteristic features of hypothyroidism and are due to interstitial accumulation of glycosaminoglycans, with associated water retention. </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-20'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>In which of the following patients would beta-blockers be the most likely to cause adverse effects?</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='925' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-925' id='answer-id-5059' class='answer answer-20 wrong-answer-label' value='5059' /><label for='answer-id-5059' id='answer-label-5059' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-20'><span>A - 	Patients with chronic congestive heart failure treated with carvedilol.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-925' id='answer-id-5060' class='answer answer-20 correct-answer-label' value='5060' /><label for='answer-id-5060' id='answer-label-5060' class='correct-answer-label answer label-20'><span>B - 	Patients with a history of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and asthma treated with metoprolol.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-925' id='answer-id-5061' class='answer answer-20 wrong-answer-label' value='5061' /><label for='answer-id-5061' id='answer-label-5061' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-20'><span>C - 	Patients after acute myocardial infarction treated with metoprolol
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-925' id='answer-id-5062' class='answer answer-20 wrong-answer-label' value='5062' /><label for='answer-id-5062' id='answer-label-5062' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-20'><span>D - 	Diabetic patient with hypertension treated with labetalol
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-925' id='answer-id-5063' class='answer answer-20 wrong-answer-label' value='5063' /><label for='answer-id-5063' id='answer-label-5063' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-20'><span>E - 	Patient with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia treated with intravenous esmolol </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-20'><p class='explanation'> Educational objective: Emphasizing danger of beta-blockers in patients with bronchospastic disease. Of the offered options only the first two are situations where side effects of beta-blockers may be expected. The other three are situations in which use of the beta-blockers are legitimate. - Beta blockade with nonselective agents may also block bronchodilatation due to bronchial beta-2 receptors. This can lead to increased airways resistance in patients with bronchospastic disease (asthma, COPD). This problem is less likely to occur with compounds with intrinsic sympaticomimetic activity (pindolol and acebutolol) or beta-1 selectivity (atenolol and metoprolol). However, in higher doses selectivity is not absolute and all beta-blockers should generally be avoided in all susceptible patients (also many of these patients are treated with beta-agonists) Administration of carvedilol to patients with CHF caused aggravation of symptoms in only 6% of patients.</p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-21'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 55-year-old male with no significant past medical history presents to you because of pain and swelling in his right calf following a vigorous game of basketball. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. He smokes a pack of cigarettes per day and drinks socially. Physical exam is normal except for edema and tenderness of his right calf. Pulses are intact. A complete blood count, prothrombin time, and PTT are normal. Ultrasonography shows a deep venous thrombosis (DVT) involving the calf and popliteal veins on the right. An appropriate regimen of outpatient treatment for DVT would include:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='926' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-926' id='answer-id-5064' class='answer answer-21 wrong-answer-label' value='5064' /><label for='answer-id-5064' id='answer-label-5064' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-21'><span>A - 	Low molecular weight heparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hrs plus warfarin 10 mg started immediately
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-926' id='answer-id-5065' class='answer answer-21 wrong-answer-label' value='5065' /><label for='answer-id-5065' id='answer-label-5065' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-21'><span>B - 	Warfarin 15 mg started immediately
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-926' id='answer-id-5066' class='answer answer-21 wrong-answer-label' value='5066' /><label for='answer-id-5066' id='answer-label-5066' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-21'><span>C - 	Low dose heparin (5000 units every 12 hrs subcutaneously) plus warfarin 15 mg stat
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-926' id='answer-id-5067' class='answer answer-21 correct-answer-label' value='5067' /><label for='answer-id-5067' id='answer-label-5067' class='correct-answer-label answer label-21'><span>D - 	Low molecular weight heparin 60 mg subcutaneously every 12 hrs plus warfarin 5-10 mg started that evening
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-926' id='answer-id-5068' class='answer answer-21 wrong-answer-label' value='5068' /><label for='answer-id-5068' id='answer-label-5068' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-21'><span>E - 	Aspirin 325 mg and warfarin 10 mg both administered immediately </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-21'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Emphasize usefulness of low molecular weight heparin for outpatient treatment of DVT.
</p><p>
Low molecular weight heparin (Enoxaparin) has been repeatedly shown to be safe and effective for treatment of patients with DVT. Enoxaparin 1mg/kg every 12 hrs and Dalteparin 200U/kg daily have been used in clinical trials. Subcutaneous Heparin in prophylactic doses would be insufficient to prevent a recurrent thrombosis in this patient. Aspirin has not been shown to be effective in DVT. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-22'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>In the Framingham study, the prevalence of chronic atrial fibrillation was 2% in persons 60-69 years old, 5% in those 70-79, and 9% in persons 80-89 years old. Evaluation of asymptomatic atrial fibrillation in the elderly includes all of the below except:</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='927' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-927' id='answer-id-5069' class='answer answer-22 wrong-answer-label' value='5069' /><label for='answer-id-5069' id='answer-label-5069' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-22'><span>A - 	Echocardiogram
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-927' id='answer-id-5070' class='answer answer-22 wrong-answer-label' value='5070' /><label for='answer-id-5070' id='answer-label-5070' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-22'><span>B - 	Thyroid panel
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-927' id='answer-id-5071' class='answer answer-22 wrong-answer-label' value='5071' /><label for='answer-id-5071' id='answer-label-5071' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-22'><span>C - 	Review of OTC medications
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-927' id='answer-id-5072' class='answer answer-22 correct-answer-label' value='5072' /><label for='answer-id-5072' id='answer-label-5072' class='correct-answer-label answer label-22'><span>D - 	Lipid panel
	
</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-927' id='answer-id-5073' class='answer answer-22 wrong-answer-label' value='5073' /><label for='answer-id-5073' id='answer-label-5073' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-22'><span>E - 	Holter monitoring</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-22'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Review diagnostic studies required for evaluation of atrial fibrillation.
</p><p>
	
Although ischemic events may be associated with atrial fibrillation, they are not an etiology of chronic atrial fibrillation. Over-the-counter medications like pseudoephedrine may precipitate paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, as may alcohol and caffeine, valvular heart disease, and hyperthyroidism. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-23'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>In atrial fibrillation in the elderly, all of the following are indications for elective cardioversion except:
</div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='928' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-928' id='answer-id-5074' class='answer answer-23 wrong-answer-label' value='5074' /><label for='answer-id-5074' id='answer-label-5074' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-23'><span>A - 	Acute MI
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-928' id='answer-id-5075' class='answer answer-23 wrong-answer-label' value='5075' /><label for='answer-id-5075' id='answer-label-5075' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-23'><span>B - 	Symptomatic rapid ventricular rate
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-928' id='answer-id-5076' class='answer answer-23 correct-answer-label' value='5076' /><label for='answer-id-5076' id='answer-label-5076' class='correct-answer-label answer label-23'><span>C - 	Duration of atrial fibrillation greater than one year
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-928' id='answer-id-5077' class='answer answer-23 wrong-answer-label' value='5077' /><label for='answer-id-5077' id='answer-label-5077' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-23'><span>D - 	Hyperthyroidism
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-928' id='answer-id-5078' class='answer answer-23 wrong-answer-label' value='5078' /><label for='answer-id-5078' id='answer-label-5078' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-23'><span>E - 	Left atrial dimension less than 45mm by echocardiogram </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-23'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Review indications for elective cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.
</p><p>
	
Conditions considered risks for failure of cardioversion include duration of illness greater than one year, cardiomyopathy, uncorrected mitral valve disease, COPD, CHF, LAE, and prior failure to cardioversion. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-24'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 56-year-old patient was brought to the emergency room for a sudden episode of squeezing chest pain that started at about 6 a.m. while he was still in bed. He also experienced some shortness of breath. During the work-up in the emergency room, an EKG was obtained and is shown in the picture. Which of the following statements regarding rhythm disturbances associated with this condition is true?

<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-761.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-761.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 761" width="800" height="422" class="alignright size-full wp-image-828" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='929' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-929' id='answer-id-5079' class='answer answer-24 wrong-answer-label' value='5079' /><label for='answer-id-5079' id='answer-label-5079' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-24'><span>A - 	First-degree heart block is the most common rhythm disturbance seen in this particular condition.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-929' id='answer-id-5080' class='answer answer-24 correct-answer-label' value='5080' /><label for='answer-id-5080' id='answer-label-5080' class='correct-answer-label answer label-24'><span>B - 	High degree AV block associated with this condition is located above HIS bundle in 90 percent of patients and results usually in transient bradycardia with junctional or escape rhythm above 40 beats per minute, resulting in low mortality.</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-929' id='answer-id-5081' class='answer answer-24 wrong-answer-label' value='5081' /><label for='answer-id-5081' id='answer-label-5081' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-24'><span>C - 	High degree AV block associated with this condition is more often located below the AV node; it is usually symptomatic and has been associated with a mortality rate approaching 80 per cent.</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-929' id='answer-id-5082' class='answer answer-24 wrong-answer-label' value='5082' /><label for='answer-id-5082' id='answer-label-5082' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-24'><span>D - 	Second-degree heart block is usually of Mobitz type II when present in this condition.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-929' id='answer-id-5083' class='answer answer-24 wrong-answer-label' value='5083' /><label for='answer-id-5083' id='answer-label-5083' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-24'><span>E - 	Complete heart block, if present in this condition, is usually symptomatic and persistent, requiring pacing. </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-24'><p class='explanation'><p> This patient presents with the clinical picture and EKG presentation of acute inferior myocardial infarction. Different types of rhythm disturbances may occur in this setting. Most commonly seen is sinus bradycardia (40% of patients within first 2 hours, decreasing to 20% by the end of the first day). First degree AV block may also occur and is usually due to occlusion of RCA supplying AV node and is commonly transient, generally resolving in 5-7 days with no therapy. Second degree AV block in inferior myocardial infarction is typically the more benign Wenckebach type (Mobitz type 1). This block is usually transient, resolving in most cases within 5 days. Mobitz type II is uncommon in this setting and occurs more commonly with anterior MI.
</p><p>
	
Complete heart block with inferior MI generally results from intranodal lesion, and it is associated with narrow QRS complex and develops in a progressive fashion from first to second to third degree block. It often results in an asymptomatic bradycardia (40-60 beats per minute) and is usually transient, resolving within five to seven days.
</p><p>
	
Any high degree AV block associated with inferior MI is located above the HIS bundle in 90% of patients. For this reason, complete heart blocks often result in only a modest, usually transient bradycardia with junctional or escape rhythms with rates above 40 beats per minute. It is not uncommon for the junctional pacemaker that controls the ventricles to accelerate to more than 60 beats per minute. The QRS complex is narrow in this setting and is associated with a low mortality.
</p><p>
	
High degree AV block that is located below the AV node is associated with anterior MI; it is usually symptomatic and has been associated with mortality rate approaching 80% (this is mostly due to big losses of functioning myocardium).</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-25'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 56-year-old male construction worker experienced sudden onset of pressing retrosternal chest pain while working for several hours outside the emergency room of the hospital on a very warm and humid day. Pain persisted for the next 10 minutes, and he went to the emergency room to be examined. His pain subsided just a little on sublingual nitroglycerin. His vital signs were as follows: Temp-37.1ºC, BP-127/77, Resp-16 min, pulse-60 min. His chest radiograph revealed no abnormalities. His initial laboratory results were as follows: Na-141 , K-4.1, Cl-112 , CO2-28, Glucose-111, BUN-16, Cr-1.2, Myoglobin-56, Troponin-0.1, CK-43, CK-MB-4, RI-1.2. Complete blood count was also obtained and was entirely normal. His EKG is shown in the picture. What is the most likely diagnosis?

<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-764.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-764.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 764" width="893" height="350" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-829" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='930' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-930' id='answer-id-5084' class='answer answer-25 wrong-answer-label' value='5084' /><label for='answer-id-5084' id='answer-label-5084' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-25'><span>A - 	Rhabdomyolysis
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-930' id='answer-id-5085' class='answer answer-25 wrong-answer-label' value='5085' /><label for='answer-id-5085' id='answer-label-5085' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-25'><span>B - 	Heat stroke
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-930' id='answer-id-5086' class='answer answer-25 correct-answer-label' value='5086' /><label for='answer-id-5086' id='answer-label-5086' class='correct-answer-label answer label-25'><span>C - 	Acute myocardial infarction
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-930' id='answer-id-5087' class='answer answer-25 wrong-answer-label' value='5087' /><label for='answer-id-5087' id='answer-label-5087' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-25'><span>D - 	Spontaneous pneumothorax
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-930' id='answer-id-5088' class='answer answer-25 wrong-answer-label' value='5088' /><label for='answer-id-5088' id='answer-label-5088' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-25'><span>E - 	Esophageal spasm </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-25'><p class='explanation'><p> Patient in question was able to reach the emergency room very early after onset of the chest pain. So early that cardiac enzymes did not have enough time to rise and allow diagnosis. However, his ECG is suggestive of acute anterior myocardial infarction. The hyperacute phase of the myocardial infarction is characterized with ST-T elevation and increased positivity of T-waves over the affected area of myocardium (high peaked T-waves). In the EKG from this question there is slight elevation of ST-T segment and high peaked T-waves in V2-V4 precordial leads. Repeated cardiac enzymes assays confirmed myocardial injury, and EKG obtained only 30 minutes after the first one revealed marked elevation of ST-T segment in V2-V4 leads.
</p><p>
	
Massive rhabdomyolysis may cause marked increase in serum potassium level and thus cause peaked T waves in EKG, but this patient has peaked T waves only over the infarcted area, and his K and myoglobin levels are within normal limits. All of this makes rhabdomyolysis very unlikely.
</p><p>
	
Heat stroke does not present with chest pain, but with hyperthermia, confusion, dehydration, etc.
</p><p>
	
Spontaneous pneumothorax may present with substernal chest pain, and may be so small that it is hard to diagnose it from the chest radiograph; however this is unusual, and it should not produce changes in EKG.
</p><p>
	
Esophageal spasm may be very hard to distinguish from anginal pain, but it should resolve on nitroglycerin therapy and should not produce changes in EKG. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-26'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 73-year-old female was admitted to the hospital because of increased shortness of breath for the last 3-4 weeks. Her family states that she has been short of breath regardless of physical activity. An ECG was obtained and is shown in the picture. All of the following medications would help to improve her symptoms except:<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-771.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-771.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 771" width="800" height="369" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-830" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='931' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-931' id='answer-id-5089' class='answer answer-26 wrong-answer-label' value='5089' /><label for='answer-id-5089' id='answer-label-5089' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-26'><span>A - 	Diltiazem
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-931' id='answer-id-5090' class='answer answer-26 wrong-answer-label' value='5090' /><label for='answer-id-5090' id='answer-label-5090' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-26'><span>B - 	Digoxin
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-931' id='answer-id-5091' class='answer answer-26 wrong-answer-label' value='5091' /><label for='answer-id-5091' id='answer-label-5091' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-26'><span>C - 	Esmolol
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-931' id='answer-id-5092' class='answer answer-26 correct-answer-label' value='5092' /><label for='answer-id-5092' id='answer-label-5092' class='correct-answer-label answer label-26'><span>D - 	Theophylline
	
</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-931' id='answer-id-5093' class='answer answer-26 wrong-answer-label' value='5093' /><label for='answer-id-5093' id='answer-label-5093' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-26'><span>E - 	Oxygen</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-26'><p class='explanation'><p> The ECG of the patient reveals irregular tachyarrythmia caused by atrial fibrillation. The average rate is about 148 beats per minute. Patient has symptoms of shortness of breath, which may be alleviated by control of the ventricular rate and by administration of oxygen. Control of the ventricular rate by pharmacologic means may be accomplished by the use of calcium channel blockers, by diminishing sympathetic tone using beta-blockers, by increase in parasympathetic tone with vagotonic drugs (digitalis), and by combination of the above drugs. Digoxin is the drug most commonly used in the U.S. for ventricular rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation and acts by vagotonic inhibition of AV nodal conduction. Although digoxin is used most commonly, it is less effective than beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers and has little ability to terminate atrial fibrillation. It is commonly used in combination and should not be used as first-line therapy.
</p><p>
	
Diltiazem and verapamil are calcium channel blockers used to control the rate in atrial fibrillation. Diltiazem has a less pronounced negative inotropic effect than verapamil, and it can be used intravenously for acute control of the ventricular rate.
</p><p>
	
Esmolol is a rapid acting beta-blocker that is given intravenously to control the ventricular rate alone or in combination with digoxin. Metoprolol and propranolol can also be given intravenously but have a much longer half-life than esmolol. Oral beta-blockers are widely used as primary therapy for rate control in chronic atrial fibrillation. These medications decrease the resting ventricular rate as well as the heart rate response to exercise.
</p><p>
	
Theophylline has never been used for any aspect of treatment in atrial fibrillation and in fact has been implicated as one of the causes of atrial fibrillation.</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-27'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>The cardiac rhythm depicted in this ECG is:<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-773.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-773.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 773" width="824" height="384" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-831" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='932' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-932' id='answer-id-5094' class='answer answer-27 wrong-answer-label' value='5094' /><label for='answer-id-5094' id='answer-label-5094' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-27'><span>A - 	Atrial fibrillation
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-932' id='answer-id-5095' class='answer answer-27 wrong-answer-label' value='5095' /><label for='answer-id-5095' id='answer-label-5095' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-27'><span>B - 	Atrio-ventricular dissociation
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-932' id='answer-id-5096' class='answer answer-27 wrong-answer-label' value='5096' /><label for='answer-id-5096' id='answer-label-5096' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-27'><span>C - 	Complete heart block
	
</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-932' id='answer-id-5097' class='answer answer-27 correct-answer-label' value='5097' /><label for='answer-id-5097' id='answer-label-5097' class='correct-answer-label answer label-27'><span>D - 	Atrial flutter
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-932' id='answer-id-5098' class='answer answer-27 wrong-answer-label' value='5098' /><label for='answer-id-5098' id='answer-label-5098' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-27'><span>E - 	Normal sinus rhythm</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-27'><p class='explanation'><p> This rhythm is atrial flutter, and it is characterized by the absence of P waves and presence of biphasic “saw tooth” waves (F or flutter waves) at the rate of about 300 beats per minute (range 240-340 per minute). These waves are fairly regular and do not have isoelectric intervals between them. The ventricular response to this atrial activity is usually one half the rate of atrial frequency (this is in absence of atrioventricular (AV) nodal disease or medications that slow AV nodal conduction). That is known as 2:1 nodal conduction and usually results in a ventricular rate of approximately 150 per minute. This is so common that atrial flutter should be considered whenever the rate is 150 beats per minute. The QRS complex is usually narrow (in absence of preexcitation or bundle branch block). In this case AV conduction is not constant and varies from 2:1 to 4:1, which gives a degree of irregular arrhythmia, but typical “saw tooth” atrial activity is clearly visible.
</p> <p> 
	
In atrial fibrillation “irregularly irregular” arrhythmia is present, but atrial activity is very irregular and does not follow any pattern. Ventricular response may be very variable.
</p> <p> 
	
In atrio-ventricular dissociation there is regular atrial activity (P waves are clearly visible) and regular ventricular activity that is faster than atrial activity (there is not any constant temporal relationship between P waves and QRS complex). In complete heart block there is no relation between atrial and ventricular activity, but in this condition ventricular rate is slower than atrial. This also cannot be normal sinus rhythm since there are no P waves. </p> </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-28'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 47-year-old homeless man was found unresponsive on the bench in the park in late evening. He was transported to a nearby emergency room by the police patrol. There he was evaluated and the ECG shown in the picture was obtained. Which of the following conditions does this ECG result suggest?<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-774.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-774.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 774" width="800" height="404" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-832" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='933' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-933' id='answer-id-5099' class='answer answer-28 wrong-answer-label' value='5099' /><label for='answer-id-5099' id='answer-label-5099' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-28'><span>A - 	Cardiac tamponade
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-933' id='answer-id-5100' class='answer answer-28 wrong-answer-label' value='5100' /><label for='answer-id-5100' id='answer-label-5100' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-28'><span>B - 	Long standing cardiomyopathy
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-933' id='answer-id-5101' class='answer answer-28 correct-answer-label' value='5101' /><label for='answer-id-5101' id='answer-label-5101' class='correct-answer-label answer label-28'><span>C - 	Hypothermia
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-933' id='answer-id-5102' class='answer answer-28 wrong-answer-label' value='5102' /><label for='answer-id-5102' id='answer-label-5102' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-28'><span>D - 	Hyperthermia
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-933' id='answer-id-5103' class='answer answer-28 wrong-answer-label' value='5103' /><label for='answer-id-5103' id='answer-label-5103' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-28'><span>E - 	Pericarditis </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-28'><p class='explanation'><p> The ECG shows a rate of about 62 beats per minute. The P waves are flat but can be seen occasionally. Most important feature seen in this ECG is convex deflection of the J point (point of junction between QRS complex and ST segment). These changes appear to prolong QRS complex and are, in this case, best visible in leads II, aVR, and aVF. This deflection of J point is also called Osborn wave and is seen in severe hypothermia. Mechanism by which this occurs is not known, and this phenomenon resolves with rewarming of the body. In cardiac tamponade ECG may show low voltage, but there are no specific ECG changes seen in this condition.
</p><p>
	
Pericarditis is characterized with low voltage and diffuse (over all leads) elevation of ST-T segment, and has no effect on length of QRS complex. Hyperthermia is usually manifested as a sinus tachycardia in ECG. Long standing cardiomyopathy has no any specific ECG presentation.</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-29'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>Which of the following diagnoses is suggested by the ECG presented in the picture?<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-784.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-784.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 784" width="800" height="423" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-833" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='934' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-934' id='answer-id-5104' class='answer answer-29 wrong-answer-label' value='5104' /><label for='answer-id-5104' id='answer-label-5104' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-29'><span>A - 	Junctional rhythm
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-934' id='answer-id-5105' class='answer answer-29 correct-answer-label' value='5105' /><label for='answer-id-5105' id='answer-label-5105' class='correct-answer-label answer label-29'><span>B - 	Acute pericarditis
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-934' id='answer-id-5106' class='answer answer-29 wrong-answer-label' value='5106' /><label for='answer-id-5106' id='answer-label-5106' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-29'><span>C - 	Acute anterolateral myocardial infarction
	
</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-934' id='answer-id-5107' class='answer answer-29 wrong-answer-label' value='5107' /><label for='answer-id-5107' id='answer-label-5107' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-29'><span>D - 	Hypokalemia
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-934' id='answer-id-5108' class='answer answer-29 wrong-answer-label' value='5108' /><label for='answer-id-5108' id='answer-label-5108' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-29'><span>E - 	Hypothermia</span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-29'><p class='explanation'>Acute pericarditis is characterized by elevation of ST segment in many leads (usually all leads because of diffuse nature of inflammation), depression of ST segment may be seen in V1 precordial lead, and PR segment depression which, however, is not seen in all patients (50-60%). Low voltage ECG also may be seen. The ST segment elevation is caused because inflammation involves the most superficial layer of myocardium and causes injury. When pericarditis is localized over part of the myocardium (rare occurrence) it may be very difficult to distinguish between acute pericarditis and acute transmural ischemia. The ECG shown in this question has very subtle diffuse elevation of ST segment, low voltage QRS complex and no definite PR segment depression. </p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-30'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 56-year-old man was seen 3 weeks after acute myocardial infarction. He is complaining of shortness of breath and exertion intolerance. He was found to be tachycardic on 30-foot walk (10 min) and his blood pressure in rest was 98/56 mmHg. The following ECG was obtained. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most suitable to establish a diagnosis in this patient?<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-785.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-785.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 785" width="800" height="460" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-834" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='935' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-935' id='answer-id-5109' class='answer answer-30 wrong-answer-label' value='5109' /><label for='answer-id-5109' id='answer-label-5109' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-30'><span>A - 	Cardiac catheterization
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-935' id='answer-id-5110' class='answer answer-30 wrong-answer-label' value='5110' /><label for='answer-id-5110' id='answer-label-5110' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-30'><span>B - 	Exercise stress test
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-935' id='answer-id-5111' class='answer answer-30 wrong-answer-label' value='5111' /><label for='answer-id-5111' id='answer-label-5111' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-30'><span>C - 	Radionuclide ventriculography
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-935' id='answer-id-5112' class='answer answer-30 wrong-answer-label' value='5112' /><label for='answer-id-5112' id='answer-label-5112' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-30'><span>D - 	Thallium stress test
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-935' id='answer-id-5113' class='answer answer-30 correct-answer-label' value='5113' /><label for='answer-id-5113' id='answer-label-5113' class='correct-answer-label answer label-30'><span>E - 	Echocardiography </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-30'><p class='explanation'><p> ST segment elevation does not resolve completely during the acute phase of MI. This most commonly occurs with anterior infarcts. The features seen on this ECG are associated with the development of a ventricular aneurysm. Marked aneurysm dilatation may preclude effective systolic emptying of the left ventricle by expanding with the increase in intraventricular pressure during the systole. This leads to diminished stroke volume, cardiac output, pulmonary congestion, exercise intolerance, etc.
</p><p>
	
Confirmation of the diagnosis is most effectively made by echocardiography. Radionuclide ventriculography, Thallium imaging, and cardiac catheterization also have the ability to demonstrate aneurysms, but these methods are slower and more invasive; ventriculography and Thallium imaging may only be able to detect large abnormalities.</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-31'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 34-year-old male patient was in the drug detoxification program in an inner city hospital for addiction to heroin and cocaine. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and end stage renal disease. He has been receiving hemodialysis for the last eight months. He started complaining of chest pain to the nurse, who called the resident on call. The patient described his pain as midsternal, mild, vague, non-radiating, and not aggravated by activity. He also complained to the resident of weakness and numbness in the fingertips of both hands. Neurologic examination revealed motor weakness in all four extremities (the patient was barely able to lift his extremities against gravity). Review of his past laboratory results revealed that two days ago, just prior to his last hemodialysis, he had Na-134, K-6.9, Cl-114, Glucose-98, CO2-18, BUN-123, Cr-11.4. There were no other laboratory results. The resident ordered Myoglobin and Troponin I levels, and an EKG to be done immediately. The patient?s EKG is shown in the picture. Which of the following medications should this patient receive first?


<a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-787.jpg"><img src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/04/docs_images_Q-787.jpg" alt="" title="_docs_images_Q 787" width="762" height="398" class="alignleft size-full wp-image-835" /></a></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='936' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-936' id='answer-id-5114' class='answer answer-31 wrong-answer-label' value='5114' /><label for='answer-id-5114' id='answer-label-5114' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-31'><span>A - 	Aspirin
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-936' id='answer-id-5115' class='answer answer-31 wrong-answer-label' value='5115' /><label for='answer-id-5115' id='answer-label-5115' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-31'><span>B - 	Thrombolytic
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-936' id='answer-id-5116' class='answer answer-31 wrong-answer-label' value='5116' /><label for='answer-id-5116' id='answer-label-5116' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-31'><span>C - 	Beta-blocker
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-936' id='answer-id-5117' class='answer answer-31 correct-answer-label' value='5117' /><label for='answer-id-5117' id='answer-label-5117' class='correct-answer-label answer label-31'><span>D - 	Calcium chloride
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-936' id='answer-id-5118' class='answer answer-31 wrong-answer-label' value='5118' /><label for='answer-id-5118' id='answer-label-5118' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-31'><span>E - 	Sodium bicarbonate </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-31'><p class='explanation'><p> This patient presents with clinical signs of hyperkalemia. This is suggested even more by his high potassium level two days ago, prior to the hemodialysis. Finally, his EKG demonstrates marked prolongation of the QRS complex and high peaked T-waves. Hyperkalemia causing such changes on EKG is a medical emergency and should be treated without waiting for laboratory confirmation of hyperkalemia.
</p><p>
	
The first drug to be administered in this situation is calcium (for the stabilization of the electrical properties of the cell membranes). Calcium may be given as gluconate or chloride. Chloride has three times the relative calcium content per volume as calcium-gluconate.
</p><p>
	
After calcium is given, patient should receive one vial of 50% dextrose (50 ml) intravenously followed by a bolus of regular insulin. This results in a shift of the extracellular potassium into the cells and temporarily relieves hyperkalemia (improvement in the EKG changes should be observed).
</p><p>
	
All of these actions do not diminish total body potassium stores, and to accomplish this in this patient, urgent hemodialysis is indicated (due to EKG changes). In cases with no such changes, a slower method, administration of sodium polystyrene (cation exchange resin) by mouth or as enema may be used.
</p><p>
	
Sodium bicarbonate also may be used, but not in the solution containing calcium because of precipitation.</p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-32'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'><p>A 76-year-old male patient with diabetes type 2, a long history of hypertension, and several episodes of congestive heart failure in the last year, is on his routine follow-up in the office. He has had no problems with shortness of breath for the last several months. He is taking his therapy regularly and tolerates it well. His therapy consists of 40 mg furosemide daily, 10 meq of KCl, and captopril 25 mg three times a day. His only complaint is that he has a chronic nonproductive dry cough.</p>
<p>On physical examination his lung fields reveal normal vesicular breathing sounds bilaterally, there is no peripheral edema, and he is afebrile. Auscultation of the heart reveals no abnormal findings. The ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and all laboratory findings are within normal limits.</p>

<p>Which of the following is the most likely reason for his cough? </p></div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='937' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-937' id='answer-id-5119' class='answer answer-32 wrong-answer-label' value='5119' /><label for='answer-id-5119' id='answer-label-5119' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-32'><span>A - 	Anginal equivalent
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-937' id='answer-id-5120' class='answer answer-32 wrong-answer-label' value='5120' /><label for='answer-id-5120' id='answer-label-5120' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-32'><span>B - 	Congestive heart failure
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-937' id='answer-id-5121' class='answer answer-32 wrong-answer-label' value='5121' /><label for='answer-id-5121' id='answer-label-5121' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-32'><span>C - 	Recurrent aspiration
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-937' id='answer-id-5122' class='answer answer-32 wrong-answer-label' value='5122' /><label for='answer-id-5122' id='answer-label-5122' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-32'><span>D - 	Upper respiratory infection
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-937' id='answer-id-5123' class='answer answer-32 correct-answer-label' value='5123' /><label for='answer-id-5123' id='answer-label-5123' class='correct-answer-label answer label-32'><span>E - 	Side effect of medication </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-32'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational objective: Emphasize cough as an important side effect of all ACE inhibitors.
</p><p>
	
All angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors cause dry cough in patients taking them (6-25% of all patients). All of them are equal in ability to produce dry cough, and substituting one for another has no place in dealing with this side effect. However, in mild cases the medication may be continued. In more severe cases change to another antihypertensive agent may be advisable. Angiotensin II receptor inhibitors are considered the best replacement drug in patients with diabetes in whom the protective effect on proteinuria and renal failure is of great importance.
</p><p>
	
This patient has no history of coronary artery disease, and his normal physical examination and EKG finding make anginal equivalent unlikely as a cause for his cough. This patient also has no risk for recurrent aspiration, and has a normal examination of the lung, as well as a normal chest x-ray.
</p><p>
	
There are no signs of congestive heart failure (peripheral edema, shortness of breath, S3, crackles or rales on lung auscultation, etc.) or infection (fever, sore throat, productive cough, etc.).
</p><p>
	
Ref: Simon SR, Black HR, Moser M at all. Cough and ACE inhibitors Arch Intern Med 1992: 152(8), 1698-700. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-33'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 63-year-old man presents to your office with new onset ascites. He carries a history of alcohol abuse in the past but has not had a drink in 8 years. He also has a history of a coronary artery bypass 3 years ago. You perform a diagnostic paracentesis. Which one of the following values will help you make the diagnosis of portal hypertension due to heart failure as opposed to cirrhosis? </div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='938' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-938' id='answer-id-5124' class='answer answer-33 wrong-answer-label' value='5124' /><label for='answer-id-5124' id='answer-label-5124' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-33'><span>A - 	Serum-ascites albumin gradient
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-938' id='answer-id-5125' class='answer answer-33 correct-answer-label' value='5125' /><label for='answer-id-5125' id='answer-label-5125' class='correct-answer-label answer label-33'><span>B - 	Ascitic total protein
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-938' id='answer-id-5126' class='answer answer-33 wrong-answer-label' value='5126' /><label for='answer-id-5126' id='answer-label-5126' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-33'><span>C - 	Ascitic white blood cell
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-938' id='answer-id-5127' class='answer answer-33 wrong-answer-label' value='5127' /><label for='answer-id-5127' id='answer-label-5127' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-33'><span>D - 	Ascitic red blood cell count
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-938' id='answer-id-5128' class='answer answer-33 wrong-answer-label' value='5128' /><label for='answer-id-5128' id='answer-label-5128' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-33'><span>E - 	Ascitic amylase </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-33'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational Objective: Review a common problem in differential diagnosis of ascites.

</p><p>
Both cirrhosis and heart failure produce ascites as a result of portal hypertension, and the serum-ascites albumin gradient will be >1.1 in both. The ascitic protein level in cirrhosis is typically <2.5 g/dl but in heart failure is >2.5 g/dl. </p></p></div></div><div class='quizzin-question' id='question-34'><div id="heading">Question</div><br /><div class='question-content'>A 68-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation is currently well-controlled and feeling well on amiodarone 300 mg/d. On your exam, you find no hepatomegaly but his ALT level is twice normal. You advise him to: </div><br /><input type='hidden' id='question_id' name='question_id[]' value='939' /><div id="heading">Answer</div><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-939' id='answer-id-5129' class='answer answer-34 correct-answer-label' value='5129' /><label for='answer-id-5129' id='answer-label-5129' class='correct-answer-label answer label-34'><span>A - 	Return for repeat aminotransferase level in 3 months.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-939' id='answer-id-5130' class='answer answer-34 wrong-answer-label' value='5130' /><label for='answer-id-5130' id='answer-label-5130' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-34'><span>B - 	Discontinue amiodarone immediately.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-939' id='answer-id-5131' class='answer answer-34 wrong-answer-label' value='5131' /><label for='answer-id-5131' id='answer-label-5131' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-34'><span>C - 	Obtain a liver biopsy.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-939' id='answer-id-5132' class='answer answer-34 wrong-answer-label' value='5132' /><label for='answer-id-5132' id='answer-label-5132' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-34'><span>D - 	Obtain an ultrasound of the abdomen.
	</span></label><br /><input type='radio' name='answer-939' id='answer-id-5133' class='answer answer-34 wrong-answer-label' value='5133' /><label for='answer-id-5133' id='answer-label-5133' class='wrong-answer-label answer label-34'><span>E - 	All of the above </span></label><br /><div style='display:none;' id='result_ans-34'><p class='explanation'><p> Educational Objective: Illustrate hepatotoxic effect of amiodarone.
</p><p>
	
Twenty to thirty percent of patients on amiodarone will have a transient elevation of their aminotransferase levels. If it is prolonged or about twice normal levels they should have the drug discontinued or undergo a liver biopsy looking for progressive non-alcoholic steatohepatitis which may progress to micronodular cirrhosis. </p></p></div></div><br />
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Felty’s syndrome is defined by a clinical triad of:

seropositive rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
neutropenia (&#60;2000/uL)
splenomegaly




. . . and, on occasion, anemia and thrombocytopenia.
Develops in individuals with long standing RA
Rare in African-Americans
Hypersplenism has been blamed for the syndrome, but not all patients have splenomegaly and splenectomy does not cure all patients.
Excessive margination of granulocytes caused by antibodies to [...]]]></description>
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<div>
<div><a title="View all posts in Rheumatology" rel="category tag" href="http://en.wordpress.com/tag/rheumatology/"></a></div>
<div>
<p><a href="http://urbaneangel.files.wordpress.com/2009/08/felty.jpg"><img title="Felty" src="http://urbaneangel.files.wordpress.com/2009/08/felty.jpg?w=249&amp;h=325" alt="Felty" width="249" height="325" /></a></p>
<p>Felty’s syndrome is defined by a clinical triad of:</p>
<ol>
<li>seropositive rheumatoid arthritis (RA)</li>
<li>neutropenia (&lt;2000/uL)</li>
<li>splenomegaly</li>
</ol>
</div>
</div>
</div>
<p>. . . and, on occasion, anemia and thrombocytopenia.</p>
<p>Develops in individuals with long standing RA</p>
<p>Rare in African-Americans</p>
<p>Hypersplenism has been blamed for the syndrome, but not all patients have splenomegaly and splenectomy does not cure all patients.</p>
<p>Excessive margination of granulocytes caused by antibodies to those cells</p>
<p>Complement activation or binding of immune complexes may contribute to neutropenia.</p>
<p>Patients have increased incidence of infections usually associated with neutropenia.</p>
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		<item>
		<title>Eosinophilic fasciitis</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/eosinophilic-fasciitis/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/eosinophilic-fasciitis/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Fri, 05 Mar 2010 07:53:56 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Rheumatology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=645</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Characterized by painful swelling and thickening of the skin in the extremities, limitations of movements due to contractures, and mild muscle weakness
Labs include elevated sedimentation rate, peripheral eosinophilia, hypergammaglobulinemia, and mildly elevated CK (not always).
Histology shows marked thickening and infiltration of the deep fascia with mononuclear cells and eosinophils.
Most patients respond to glucocorticoids.
]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><a href="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/03/Eosinophilic-fasci.jpg"><img class="alignleft size-medium wp-image-908" title="Eosinophilic fasci" src="http://www.medcert.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/03/Eosinophilic-fasci-300x220.jpg" alt="" width="300" height="220" /></a>Characterized by painful swelling and thickening of the skin in the extremities, limitations of movements due to contractures, and mild muscle weakness</p>
<p>Labs include elevated sedimentation rate, peripheral eosinophilia, hypergammaglobulinemia, and mildly elevated CK (not always).</p>
<p>Histology shows marked thickening and infiltration of the deep fascia with mononuclear cells and eosinophils.</p>
<p>Most patients respond to glucocorticoids.</p>
]]></content:encoded>
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		</item>
		<item>
		<title>Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome</title>
		<link>http://www.medcert.com/eosinophilia-myalgia-syndrome/</link>
		<comments>http://www.medcert.com/eosinophilia-myalgia-syndrome/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Fri, 05 Mar 2010 07:53:31 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Rheumatology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.medcert.com/?p=643</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[More common in women
Associated with ingestion of L-tryptophan (essential amino-acid)
Symptoms include fever and rash, arthralgia and myalgia, cough and dyspnea, and edema.
Accompanied with eosinophilia (>1000 cells/microL).
Peripheral neuropathy, myositis (with lymphocytic and eosinophilic infiltration)
Tryptophan (contaminating L-tryptophan preparations) has been implicated as a cause. 
]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>More common in women</p>
<p>Associated with ingestion of L-tryptophan (essential amino-acid)</p>
<p>Symptoms include fever and rash, arthralgia and myalgia, cough and dyspnea, and edema.</p>
<p>Accompanied with eosinophilia (>1000 cells/microL).</p>
<p>Peripheral neuropathy, myositis (with lymphocytic and eosinophilic infiltration)</p>
<p>Tryptophan (contaminating L-tryptophan preparations) has been implicated as a cause. </p>
]]></content:encoded>
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